EASY PSC | Treatment Organizer Gr.II - Kasaragod District Answer Key

Question 1

The part of a cell at which glycolysis taking place is :

A

Mitochondria

B

Cytoplasm

C

Ribosomes

D

Cell membrane

Question 2

What is the respiratory quotient of carbohydrate?

A

One

B

Less than one

C

infinity

D

zero

Question 3

“S A node” is located on ––––––––––––– part of heart.

A

Left atrium

B

Right Ventricle

C

Left ventricle

D

Right atrium

Question 4

––––––––––––– is a part of male reproductive system in humans.

A

Epididymis

B

Ampulla

C

Isthmus

D

Cervix

Question 5

Villi is found inside the :

A

Stomach

B

Small intestine

C

Oesophagus

D

Large intestine

Question 6

The type of synovial joint present in knee :

A

Hinge joint

B

Pivot joint

C

Saddle joint

D

Ball and socket joint

Question 7

Nissl granules are the characteristic of which cell?

A

Muscle cell

B

Nerve cell

C

Bone cell

D

Epithelial cell

Question 8

The leutinising hormone has the highest concentration during

A

Menstruation

B

Pregnancy

C

Ovulation

D

Parturition

Question 9

Which is the genotype of blood group ‘AB’?

A

IA IA

B

IA IB

C

Iai

D

IBi

Question 10

The most abundant leucocyte present in the blood :

A

Neutrophil

B

Monocyte

C

Oesinophil

D

Basophil

Question 11

The gland that is attached to the kidney is :

A

Pineal gland

B

Thymus gland

C

Adrenal gland

D

Thyroid gland

Question 12

The ‘Fovea’ at the retina of eye contains––––––––––––– cells?

A

Only rods

B

Only cones

C

Both rods and cones

D

None of the above

Question 13

Which among the following is a wrong statement about a skeletal muscle?

A

Presence of striations

B

Voluntary in action

C

Connected with bone

D

Presence of intercated disc

Question 14

The middle layer of wall of uterus is :

A

Myometrium

B

Perimetrium

C

Mesothelium

D

Endometrium

Question 15

Gastric gland cell that produce HCl is :

A

Mucus cell

B

Cheif cells

C

Oxyntic cells

D

Serosa cells

Question 16

Name the bone present in the pelvic girdle :

A

Ischium

B

Pubis

C

Ilium

D

All of the above

Question 17

Which among the following is hyperglycemic hormone?

A

Insulin

B

Melatonin

C

Glucagon

D

Thyroxin

Question 18

Dental formula in adult human is :

A

2123/2123

B

2132/2132

C

2321/2321

D

2114/2114

Question 19

The function of ‘Sertoli cells’ that is found inside the testes :

A

Spermatogenesis

B

Nutrition

C

Protection

D

Secretion

Question 20

The disorder ‘Night blindness’ is due to the deficiency of :

A

Vitamin ‘A’

B

Vitamin ‘D’

C

Vitamin ‘E’

D

Vitamin ‘C’

Question 21

The immediate action to prevent further damage caused by corrosive acid chemical burns :

A

Wash the part with weak acid solution and plenty of water

B

Flood the part with water, Bathe the part with an alkaline solution

C

Flood the part with warm water

D

Give plenty of oral fluids to drink

Question 22

Constrictive bandage to be applied on the victims heart side of the Snake bite, is tighly enough :

A

To stop the circulation through the veins of the bitten limb

B

To arrest the arterial circulation in the bitten limb

C

Cause congestion of the limb and to increase bleeding from the wound

D

None of the above

Question 23

Which blood vessels carry bright red blood, in hemorrhage?

A

Vein

B

Capillary

C

Artery

D

Above all

Question 24

The important clinical features which is present during excessive exposure to the sun :

A

Numbness in body

B

Breathing difficulty

C

Intense pain over the body

D

The skin is red, swollen, painful

Question 25

A heavy victim can be lifted without undue strain for the first aider. The principles of lifting a victim are as follows, EXCEPT :

A

Use the most powerful muscles of your body for lifting

B

Keep the weight of the victim as close to your body as possible

C

Keep your head and back lean forward to lift the body of victim

D

Use your entire upper limb to strengthen your grasp on the victims body

Question 26

Disease characterised by the decreased blood supply to the brain, due to blood clot, hemorrhage or embolus is termed as :

A

Encephalitis

B

Angina pectoris

C

Shock

D

Stroke

Question 27

In stock keep the patient in supine position with his head lower than the rest of the body, this is to :

A

To improve the venous return from the lower limbs and improve blood supply to the brain

B

To reduce pain in lower limbs

C

To improve respiration and blood supply to lungs

D

None of these

Question 28

The term difficulty in breathing is known as :

A

Bradypnea

B

Apnea

C

Orthopnea

D

Dyspnea

Question 29

The normal blood pressure of an adult :

A

130/90 mm Hg

B

120/80 mm Hg

C

110/70 mm Hg

D

120/90 mm Hg

Question 30

Patient with prolonged bed rest and restricted movements develop a deformity called :

A

Talipes equino valgus

B

Talipes equino varus

C

Ptosis

D

Foot drop

Question 31

Fluid and nutrients are introduced into the stomach through a tube, when the patient is unable to eat food :

A

Compression

B

Decompression

C

Lavage

D

Gavag

Question 32

It is the instillation of solution into the lower bowel and rectum:

A

Vaginal Douche

B

Catheterization

C

Enema

D

None of the above

Question 33

DOTS plus programme launched in the year :

A

2007

B

2006

C

2005

D

2008

Question 34

1gm protein yields :

A

9 calories

B

4 calories

C

6 calories

D

5 calories

Question 35

Which of the following is not involved in cardio pulmonary resuscitation?

A

Start mouth to mouth breathing

B

External cardiac massage

C

Do Heimlichs maneuver

D

Keep the airway patent

Question 36

It is the process of destroying all types of pathogenic and non pathogenic organisms including virus and spores :

A

Decontamination

B

Fumigation

C

Sterilization

D

Disinfection

Question 37

Diarrhea, cholera, typhoid are caused by :

A

Pollution of water and food

B

Hereditary diseases

C

Life style diseases

D

None of these

Question 38

The early signs and symptoms of tuberculosis:

A

Cough, fever, weight loss

B

Diarrhea, weakness, loss of weight

C

Abdomen pain, vomiting, fatigue

D

Anemia, dyspnea, fatigue

Question 39

It is yellowish discolouration in the sclera of the eyes, mucous membrane and the skin due to a disease condition:

A

Typhoid

B

Jaundice

C

H1N1

D

Anemia

Question 40

Convert Fahrenheit to celcius:

A

C = (F-32°) x 9/5

B

C = (32°-F) x 5/9

C

C = (32°-F) x 9/5

D

C = (F-32°) x 5/9

Question 41

Unpleasant odour of breath is known as :

A

Gingivitis

B

Glossitis

C

Stomatitis

D

Halitosis

Question 42

The action taken prior to the onset of disease which removes the possibility that the disease will ever occur is :

A

Secondary prevention

B

Tertiary prevention

C

Primary prevention

D

None of the above

Question 43

Interval between entrance of pathogen into body and appearance of first symptoms :

A

Incubation period

B

Prodromal stage

C

Illness stage

D

Convalescence stage

Question 44

Deficiency of Vitamin A causes :

A

Night blindness

B

Blepharitis

C

Conjunctivitis

D

Trachoma

Question 45

Excessive shedding of the scalp skin is known as :

A

Scabies

B

Ring worm infection

C

Falling of Hair

D

Dandruff

Question 46

Immunity that a person inherits or gets through genetic structure is known as :

A

Acquired immunity

B

Active immunity

C

Passive immunity

D

Natural immunity

Question 47

Which vaccine is used against tuberculosis prevention?

A

TT

B

BCG

C

MMR

D

OPV

Question 48

Which of the following is not bactericidal drug?

A

Rifampicin

B

Ethambutol

C

Pyrazinamide

D

INH

Question 49

Tuberculosis is transmitted mainly by :

A

Water

B

Droplet Infection

C

Blood

D

Mosquitoe

Question 50

Fungal infection between the toes of foot is known as :

A

Madura foot

B

Hyperidrosis

C

Athletes foot

D

Bromhidrosis

Question 51

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is discovered by :

A

Louis Pasture

B

Robert Koch

C

Alexander Fleming

D

Robert Hooke

Question 52

An AFB smear consistently found to be positive would have to contain how many bacilli/ml of sputum :

A

10000 AFB per ml

B

5000 ABF per ml

C

1000 ABF per ml

D

100 ABF perml

Question 53

False positive AFB smear means :

A

Acid fast staining of organism other than mycobacteria

B

Acid fast staining of food particles or fibers

C

Spores of fungus

D

All of the above

Question 54

Tuberculosis is spread from sputum smear positive patient to others is by :

A

Inhalation of air born particles with mycobacteria

B

Through the mycobacteria contaminated food intake

C

Mycobacteria entered through wounds of the skin

D

All of the above

Question 55

At present anti TB drugs in RNTCP of India is given as :

A

Daily short course therapy

B

Intermittent short course therapy

C

According to the nutritional status of the patients

D

All of the above

Question 56

In treatment card “Name of Treatment Centre” :

A

The center from treatment started

B

The center from TB diagnosed

C

The center from patient taking treatment

D

All of the above

Question 57

Type of Patient marked in treatment card all are correct EXCEPT :

A

N–New

B

D–Death

C

R–Relapse

D

T–Transfer

Question 58

Positive result in Laboratory Form for Sputum Examination at Results section written in :

A

Blue ink

B

Green ink

C

Red ink

D

Any ink but neat

Question 59

Treatment completed patient which of the following is correct :

A

Sputum smear-positive case who has completed treatment with negative Smears at the end of the intensive phase but none at the end of treatment

B

Sputum smear-negative patient who has received a full course of treatment and has not become smear positive during or at the end of treatment

C

Extra-pulmonary patient who has received a full course of treatment and has not become smear-positive during or at the end of treatment

D

All of the above

Question 60

Defaulted TB patient means :

A

Registered but ATT not taken

B

Stopped ATT before 3 weeks

C

Stopped ATT after 6 weeks only

D

Has not taken anti-TB drugs consecutively for 2 months or more

Question 61

Tuberculosis Research Centre in India is situated at :

A

New Delhi

B

Mumbai

C

Chennai

D

Kolkata

Question 62

National TB Centre in India is situated at :

A

Mysore

B

Hyderabad

C

Pune

D

Bengaluru

Question 63

After 2 months of conventional anti TB therapy sputum examination is positive it suggestive of :

A

Return after treatment

B

Inadequate dosage

C

Resistant TB

D

Improper treatment

Question 64

Most correct test to find TB infection in a country is :

A

X-ray examination

B

Clinical examination

C

Sputum examination

D

Tuberculin test

Question 65

Tuberculin test help to find out :

A

Prior exposure to mycobacterium tuberculosis

B

If Negative means no TB

C

Immune status of the patient

D

Highly positive means active TB

Question 66

In RNTCP CAT- 1ATT sputum examination done at :

A

1,3,5 months

B

2,4,6 months

C

2,5,7 months

D

2,3,5 months

Question 67

One sputum positive TB patient can infect :

A

1-2 patients per year

B

5-6 person per year

C

10-15 person per year

D

100-200 person per year

Question 68

What is the RNTCP cure rate?

A

100%

B

92%

C

80%

D

65%

Question 69

Which drug is not include in RNTCP CAT 1 :

A

INH

B

Rifampicin

C

Ethambutol

D

Levofloxacin

Question 70

By WHO definition of MDR TB means resistance to :

A

Pyrazinamide and Ethambutol

B

Ethambutol and INH with or without other drugs

C

INH and Pyrazinamide

D

INH and Rifampicin with or without other drugs

Question 71

Combination of multiple drugs given in TB treatment is :

A

Broad spectrum

B

Reduce side effect

C

Prevent resistance

D

None of the above

Question 72

Which of the following drug is not use in pregnancy :

A

INH

B

Rifampicin

C

Ethambutol

D

Streptomycin

Question 73

WHO best criteria to diagnose pulmonary TB is

A

Chest pain

B

Sputum positive

C

Cough more than 3 weeks

D

X-ray finding suggestive of active pulmonary TB

Question 74

Who is the following person had contact with smear positive TB need preventive chemotherapy?

A

Pregnant women

B

Old aged

C

Child below 6 years

D

Child below 13 years

Question 75

One tuberculin unit is :

A

1 unit of PPD RT3

B

0.0001 mg

C

0.1 mg BCG

D

None of the above

Question 76

Smear positive means :

A

One sample which is positive

B

One sample positive out of two samples

C

Two samples positive out of three samples

D

All of the above

Question 77

TB in diabetes is true :

A

Severe diseases

B

High incidence

C

Atypical presentation

D

All of the above

Question 78

Prevalence of Tubercular infection in India is :

A

35%

B

40%

C

53.7%

D

60%

Question 79

When to give BCG vaccination ideally?

A

As early after birth

B

Up to age of 5 years

C

Up to age of 10 years

D

None of the above

Question 80

State TB Centre of Kerala is situated at :

A

Kochi

B

Kozhikode

C

Thiruvananthapuram

D

Thrissur

Question 81

In which Indian State the Harappan site Kalibangan is located?

A

Gujarat

B

Rajasthan

C

Punjab

D

Haryana

Question 82

In which year Indian National congress was founded?

A

1757

B

1790

C

1857

D

1885

Question 83

Who is popularly known as ‘Kumara Guru’?

A

Poikayil Yohannan

B

Abraham Malpan

C

Kumaranasan

D

Sree Narayana Guru

Question 84

At which place Gandhiji experimented with Satyagraha for the first time in India :

A

Champaran

B

Belgam

C

Kheda

D

Sabarmati

Question 85

Who serves as the defence minister of India at present?

A

Rajnath Singh

B

Nirmala Seetharaman

C

Arun Jaitley

D

Sushma Swaraj

Question 86

Which day is observed as ‘International Women’s day’?

A

January 8

B

February 8

C

March 8

D

April 8

Question 87

Which is the birth place of Sree Narayana Guru?

A

Panmana

B

Kannanmula

C

Varkkala

D

Chempazhanti

Question 88

Who led the Villuvandi strike in Kerala?

A

Pandit Karuppan

B

Chatampi Swamikal

C

Ayyankali

D

K. Kelappan

Question 89

Among the following which is not a west-flowing river in Kerala?

A

Chaliyar

B

Periyar

C

Kabani

D

Bharathapuzha

Question 90

In which district of Kerala the archaeological site Pattanam is located?

A

Wayanad

B

Palakkad

C

Thrissur

D

Ernakulam

Question 91

Who won Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2017?

A

Vinod Khanna

B

Manoj Kumar

C

Sashi Kapoor

D

Amitabh Bachchan

Question 92

Which Indian State prepared ‘Water ATM policy’ to provide clean drinking water?

A

Haryana

B

Rajasthan

C

Kerala

D

TamilNadu

Question 93

Name the Nair social reformist who revolted against Brahmin dominance in Kerala?

A

Vaikunta Swami

B

Chatampi Swamikal

C

Thycaud Ayya

D

Vagbhatananda

Question 94

Who led ‘Savarna Jatha’ as a part of Vaikkom Satyagraha?

A

Dr. Palpu

B

C.V. Kunhiraman

C

Mannath Padmanabhan

D

K.P. Kesava Menon

Question 95

Who founded the Travancore Muslim Mahajana Sabha?

A

Makti Thangal

B

Vakkam Abdul Khadir Maulavi

C

Sir Syed Ahmed Khan

D

Habeeb Mohamed

Question 96

Who acts as the Chairperson of the Niti Aayog?

A

President

B

Prime Minister

C

Finance Minister

D

Defence Minister

Question 97

Name the Bengal Nawab who was defeated by the British in the Battle plassey :

A

Mir Kasim

B

Shah Alam II

C

Siraj-ud-daula

D

Shuja-ud-daula

Question 98

Name the British viceroy who announced the Partition of Bengal in 1905?

A

Lord Dalhousie

B

Lord Willingdon

C

Lord Minto

D

Lord Curzon

Question 99

Who is called the ‘Father of Modern Indian Renaissance’?

A

Swami Dayananda Saraswati

B

Swami Vivekananda

C

Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar

D

Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Question 100

From which country India adopted the Five year plans :

A

Russia

B

America

C

Japan

D

China

089/2018 - Treatment Organizer Gr.II - Kasaragod