Kerala PSC Treatment Organiser Gr II Previous Year Paper

Question 1

Periyar National Park is located at

A

Thekkady

B

Munnar

C

Malampuzha

D

Devikulam

Question 2

Who was the chairman of the Indian Constitution drafting committee?

A

Sachidananda Sinha

B

Dr B.R Ambedkar

C

Sardar Patel

D

V.P Menon

Question 3

Who is the present minister for Human Resource Development?

A

Rajnath Singh

B

Arun Jaitley

C

Smriti Irani

D

Sushama Swaraj

Question 4

Mayurakshi river valley project belongs to which of the following states?

A

Karnataka

B

West Bengal

C

Gujarat

D

Kerala

Question 5

Which is also known as cauliflower clouds?

A

Nimbus

B

Cirrus

C

Stratus

D

Cumulus

Question 6

Nehru Rozgar Yojana was launched with the objective of

A

Agricultural Development

B

Public Health improvement

C

Urban Poverty alleviation

D

Environmental protection

Question 7

Pooyamkutty forest, the favorite habitat of King Cobras in Kerala is located in which district?

A

Idukki

B

Pathanamthitta

C

Palakkad

D

Ernakulam

Question 8

Who is associated with the slogan "Garibi Hatao"?

A

Jawaharlal Nehru

B

Indira Gandhi

C

Rajiv Gandhi

D

Morarji Desai

Question 9

Which among the following is also known as Montague-Chelmsford reforms?

A

Indian Councils Act of 1909

B

Government of India Act of 1919

C

Government of India Act of 1935

D

Indian Independence Act of 1947

Question 10

Name the Viceroy of India who was assassinated at Andaman Nicobar Islands

A

Lord Wellesley

B

Lord Irwin

C

Lord Cornwallis

D

Lord Mayo

Question 11

The President of India who declared Internal Emergency in 1975.

A

Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

B

V.V Giri

C

Sankar Dayal Sarma

D

R. Venkataraman

Question 12

Who founded the Prathyaksha Daiva Raksha Sabha (PDRS)?

A

Chavara Kuriakose Elias

B

Poykayil Yohannan

C

Fr. Arnos Pathiri

D

Fr.Clement Pathiri

Question 13

Who was nominated as the 'Dictator' of state Congress?

A

K.R Gowriamma

B

Rosamma Punnoose

C

Akkamma Cherian

D

Captain Lakshmi

Question 14

Which is the birth place of Ayyankali?

A

Chempazhanthy

B

Attingal

C

Neyyattinkara

D

Vengannur

Question 15

Who led the Savarna Jatha during Vaikom Sathyagraha of 1924?

A

Mannath Padmanabhan

B

K.Kelappan

C

T.K Madhavan

D

V.T Bhattathiripad

Question 16

Who among the following social revolutionaries worked as a doctor at Mysore?

A

C.Krishnan

B

P.Palpu

C

Kumara Guru

D

Pandit Karuppan

Question 17

Who founded the Atma Vidya sangham?

A

Brahmananda Sivayogi

B

Thycaud Ayya

C

Vagbhatananda

D

Ayyankali

Question 18

Which of the following wild life sanctuaries is named after Steve Irvin, the famous naturalist?

A

Silent Valley

B

Ranganathittoo

C

Kaziranga

D

Neyyar

Question 19

Who issued the Temple Entry Proclamation in 1936?

A

Chithira Thirunal Bala Rama Varma

B

Marthanda Varma

C

Visakham Thirunal Rama Varma

D

Dharmaraja

Question 20

Banasura Sagar Dam, the largest earth dam in India is located at

A

Pathanamthitta

B

Idukki

C

Palakkad

D

Wayanad

Question 21

Which of the following is not an ear ossicle ?

A

Lunate

B

Malleus

C

Incus

D

Stapes

Question 22

Which of the following is a muscle of forearm ?

A

Biceps

B

Triceps

C

Brachioradialis

D

Brachialis

Question 23

Which of the following gland has both exocrine and endocrine parts ?

A

Thyroid

B

Pancreas

C

Pituitary

D

Adrenal

Question 24

Which of the following is not a branch of arch of aorta ?

A

Brachiocephalic trunk

B

Left common carotid artery

C

Left subclavian artery

D

Brachial artery

Question 25

Which of the following nerve supplies muscles of anterior compartment of thigh ?

A

Femoral nerve

B

Sciatic nerve

C

Tibial nerve

D

Common peroneal nerve

Question 26

The normal length of fallopian tube is

A

5 cms

B

20 cms

C

25 cms

D

10 cms

Question 27

Which of the following covers abdominal organs ?

A

Pleura

B

Peritoneum

C

Pericardium

D

Sibson's fascia

Question 28

Which of the following carries oxygenated blood ?

A

Pulmonary vein

B

Coronary sinus

C

Femoral vein

D

Inferior vena cava

Question 29

Which of the following is not a part of small intestine ?

A

Duodenum

B

Jejunum

C

Pyloric antrum

D

Ileum

Question 30

Which of the following is the posterior most part of cerebral hemisphere ?

A

Frontal lobe

B

Temporal lobe

C

Cerebellum

D

Occipital lobe

Question 31

Pacemaker of human heart

A

SA node

B

AV node

C

Bundle of His

D

Purkinje fibers

Question 32

Enzyme present in gastric juice

A

Trypsinogen

B

Pepsinogen

C

Elastase

D

Nuclease

Question 33

Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration

A

Expiratory reserve volume

B

Residual volume

C

Vital capacity

D

Functional residual capacity

Question 34

Hormone that facilitates water reabsorption from the distal part of renal tubule

A

Oxytocin

B

ADH

C

ANP

D

cortisol

Question 35

Factor favouring formation of oxyhemoglobin

A

High H+ concentration

B

High pCO2

C

Low pCO2

D

Low pO2

Question 36

Centre which control body temperature is located in

A

Pons

B

Medulla

C

Thalamus

D

Hypothalamus

Question 37

Point in retina where visual acuity is greatest

A

Macula densa

B

Visual cortex

C

Fovea centralis

D

Blind spot

Question 38

Hormone which induces ovulation

A

LH

B

FSH

C

ACTH

D

MSH

Question 39

Part of brain that contains centre which control respiration and cardiovascular reflexes

A

Cerebrum

B

Cerebellum

C

Medulla

D

Spinal cord

Question 40

Testosterone is produced by

A

Sertoli cells

B

Leydig cells

C

Lacis cells

D

Parietal cells

Question 41

The system of storage and transport of vaccine at low temperature is known as

A

Cold chain

B

Chain of infection

C

Hot chain

D

Cold rooms

Question 42

Paracetamol medication is

A

Anti-tussive

B

Anti-asthmatic

C

Anti-pyretic

D

Anti-emetic

Question 43

Acquisition of skills in known as

A

Cognitive learning by knowledge

B

Psycho-motor learning by skills

C

Affective learning by attitudes

D

Learning by conditioned reflex

Question 44

Acculturation is

A

Study of various culture

B

Mingling with other culture and accepting good characteristics

C

Going abroad

D

None of the above

Question 45

Objects which are capable of transmitting the disease

A

Sepsis

B

Asepsis

C

Fomite

D

Carrier

Question 46

Breathing that is normal in rate and depth

A

Eupnea

B

Bradypnea

C

Tachypnea

D

Apnea

Question 47

All are food fortification except

A

Iodisation of salt

B

Addition of color to saccharin

C

Addition of Vitamin A to food stuff

D

Addition of extra nutrients to food stuff

Question 48

Diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is best confirmed by

A

Sputum examination

B

Radiography

C

Mantoux test

D

History alone

Question 49

All of the following programmes are sponsored by the Ministry of Social Welfare except

A

Balawadi nutrition programme

B

ICDS

C

Special nutrition programme

D

Mid-day meal programme

Question 50

Community health guide measures malnutrition by

A

Mid-arm circumference

B

Height and Weight

C

Skin fold thickness

D

Any of the above

Question 51

In a social group, the act which is considered natural and right is referred to as

A

Taboo

B

Ritual

C

Custom

D

Tradition

Question 52

For an infant suffering from mild diarrhoea what is advised

A

Antibiotics

B

Stop breast feeding and give ORS

C

Continue breast feeding

D

IV fluid administration

Question 53

Sterilization by steam under pressure is called

A

Autoclaving

B

Hot air oven

C

Fumigation

D

Boiling

Question 54

Niacin deficiency leads to

A

Peripheral neuropathy

B

Beriberi

C

Anemia

D

Pellagra

Question 55

Which anti-TB drug causes resistance fast

A

INH

B

Streptomycin

C

Rifampicin

D

Ethambutol

Question 56

Dietary supplement alone cannot compensate for the increased requirement of which nutrient in pregnant women

A

Iodine

B

Magnesium

C

Calcium

D

Iron

Question 57

Which vaccine is given earliest?

A

Hepatitis

B

DPT

C

Measles

D

BCG

Question 58

Which of the following Vitamins regulates the serum level of calcium and phosphate?

A

Vitamin A

B

Vitamin B

C

Vitamin D

D

Vitamin K

Question 59

Hospital acquired infection is known as

A

Droplet infection

B

Opportunistic infection

C

Contamination

D

Nosocomial infection

Question 60

Iron and foilc acid supplementation forms

A

Health promotion

B

Specific protection

C

Primordial prevention

D

Primary prevention

Question 61

Primary health care includes all except

A

Treatment is done by a doctor

B

Equitable distribution

C

Intersectorial co-ordination

D

Appropriate technology

Question 62

Health education

A

is health distortion

B

is health promotion

C

is delivered through public health agencies

D

does not help in prevention of diseases

Question 63

Hospice is the treatment concept for

A

Terminally ill cancer patients

B

Psychiatric patients

C

Cardiac patients

D

All of the above

Question 64

Inflammation of the tongue is known as

A

Gingivitis

B

Glossitis

C

Parotitis

D

Stomatitis

Question 65

Chemical burn of the eye is treated with

A

Local anesthetics and antibacterial drops for 24 to 36 hours

B

Hot compresses applied at 15 minutes interval

C

Flushing of lids, conjunctiva, cornea with tap or sterile water

D

Cleansing the conjunctiva with a small cotton tipped applicator

Question 66

Bleeding from the nose is known as

A

Epistaxis

B

Hemoptysis

C

Hematemesis

D

Hematuria

Question 67

DOTS is used in the treatment of

A

Leprosy

B

Tuberculosis

C

Malaria

D

Filaria

Question 68

Which of the following interventions can best prevent bedsore?

A

Keep the skin clean and dry

B

Massage reddened areas with lotion and oils

C

Use special water mattress

D

Change position every 2 hourly

Question 69

Egg has all Vitamins except

A

Vitamin B1

B

Vitamin B6

C

Vitamin C

D

Vitamin E

Question 70

All are health promotion strategies except

A

Insecticide spray

B

Portable safe water supply

C

Life style modification

D

Chemoprophylaxis

Question 71

Which is the most common organism causing community acquired pneumonia in adults?

A

Staphylococcus

B

Streptococcus

C

H.influenza

D

Klebsiella

Question 72

A patient started on antituberculous treatment complains of joint pain after a few days.Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause for this symptom?

A

INH

B

Rifampicin

C

Pyrazinamide

D

Ethambutol

Question 73

Tuberculosis was declared as a global emergency by WHO in the year

A

1993

B

1995

C

1997

D

1999

Question 74

Dose of pyrazinamide in Category 1 RNTCP for a patient weighing 40 kg is

A

One tab of 1000mg

B

One tab of 1500mg

C

Two tabs of 500mg

D

Two tabs of 750 mg

Question 75

Abnormal blue colouration of skin and mucous membrane is called

A

Jaundice

B

Cyanosis

C

Chemosis

D

Echymosis

Question 76

World tuberculosis day is observed on

A

March 31

B

March 24

C

April 7

D

December 10

Question 77

Which of the following gas is the most dangerous pollutant of the atmosphere

A

Carbon monoxide

B

Sulphur dioxide

C

Nitrogen dioxide

D

Ozone

Question 78

Severe acute respiratory syndrome(SARS) is caused by

A

Rhinovirus

B

Corona virus

C

Influenza virus

D

Respiratory syncitial virus

Question 79

The classical pathological stages of lobar pneumonia include all the following EXCEPT

A

Stage of colonization

B

Stage of congestion

C

Stage of hepatization

D

Stage of resolution

Question 80

Which of the following was termed as 'eaton agent'

A

Chlamydia

B

Legionella

C

Mycoplasma

D

Histoplasma

Question 81

Bulging of interlobar fissure is the characteristic chest x-ray finding in pneumonia caused by

A

Pneumococcus

B

Klebsiella

C

Staphylococcus

D

Varicella

Question 82

A definite diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis can be ensured with

A

Sputum macroscopy

B

Chest x-ray

C

Sputum AFB culture

D

CT scan of thorax

Question 83

Pott's disease is

A

TB of spine

B

TB of skin

C

TB of genitourinary tract

D

TB of abdomen

Question 84

Drug of choice for avian flu

A

Ritonavir

B

Oseltamivir

C

Saquinavir

D

Acyclovir

Question 85

Which of the following is a fungus

A

Mycoplasma

B

Plasmodium

C

Histoplasma

D

Nocardia

Question 86

Peripheral neuropathy is the principal adverse effect of

A

INH

B

Rifampicin

C

Pyrazinamide

D

Ethambutol

Question 87

Which of the following is NOT present in the left lung

A

Upper lobe

B

Middle lobe

C

Lower lobe

D

None of the above

Question 88

The volume of anatomical dead space in a normal adult is

A

150ml

B

250ml

C

350ml

D

500ml

Question 89

Whooping cough is caused by

A

Virus

B

Bacteria

C

Fungus

D

Protozoa

Question 90

The reading of Mantoux test is done at

A

12-24hrs

B

24-36hrs

C

36-48hrs

D

48-72hrs

Question 91

In Marfans syndrome,there is increased risk for

A

Pneumonia

B

Pneumothorax

C

Pleural effusion

D

All of the above

Question 92

Byssinosis is seen in

A

Coal workers

B

Cotton mill workers

C

Quarry workers

D

Wool sorters

Question 93

Surfactant is secreted by

A

Type 1 epithelial cell

B

Type 2 epithelial cell

C

Alveolar macrophage

D

APUD cell

Question 94

A rightward shift of oxygen dissociation curve is caused by all EXCEPT

A

Increase in temperature

B

Increase in 2,3,DPG

C

Increase in CO2

D

Increase in pH

Question 95

ALL are acid fast EXCEPT

A

Mycobacteria

B

Rhodococcus

C

Nocardia

D

Pneumocystis

Question 96

Pneumocystis jiroveci is a

A

Bacterium

B

Fungus

C

Virus

D

None of the above

Question 97

Which of the following is NOT seen in CREST syndrome?

A

Calcinosis

B

Raynaud's phenomenon

C

Dysphagia

D

Serositis

Question 98

Rust coloured sputum is commonly seen in pneumonia caused by

A

Pneumococcus

B

Staphylococcus

C

Klebsiella

D

Pseudomonas

Question 99

One of the following drug causes reddish discoloration of urine

A

Isoniazid

B

PAS

C

Rifampicin

D

Ethambutol

Question 100

Mutidrug resistance in tuberculosis is resistance to at least two of the following drugs

A

INH and Rifampicin

B

Ethambutol and Streptomycin

C

INH and Ethambutol

D

Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide

040/2016/OL - Treatment Organiser Gr II