EASY PSC | 003/2021 - Pharmacist Gr. 2 (SR For SC/ST)

Question 1

In which theory is the acid an electron pair acceptor and the base an electron pair donor ?

A

Bronsted-Lowry concept

B

Lewis concept

C

Arrhenius concept

D

Hard and Soft acid base concept

Question 2

Muriatic acid is the synonym of

A

Hydrochloric Acid

B

Sulphuric Acid

C

Nitric Acid

D

Phosphoric Acid

Question 3

2% W/V iodine and 2.5% W/V Potassium Iodide

A

Aqueous Iodide Solution

B

Strong Iodine Solution

C

Weak Iodine Solution

D

Povidone-Iodine Solution

Question 4

Astringent compound exhibit the following properties except :

A

Styptic

B

Anti-inflammatory

C

Anti-persperant

D

Anti-tussive

Question 5

Flower of sulphur is the synonym of

A

Sublimed sulphur

B

Precipitated sulphur

C

Sulphur ointment

D

Selenium sulphide

Question 6

Chlorine reacts with Calcium Hydroxide to produce

A

Sodium Hypochlorite Solution

B

Chlorinated Lime

C

Calcium Carbonate

D

Calcium Gluconate

Question 7

Which of the following is not used as expectorant ?

A

Ammonium Chloride

B

Potassium Iodide

C

Guaicol

D

Sodium Nitrite

Question 8

In the assay of Hydrogen Peroxide the indicator used is

A

Potassium Permanganate

B

Phenolphthalein

C

Methyl Orange

D

Thymol Blue

Question 9

Drugs that help in removing sputum from respiratory tract either by increasing fluidity of sputum or increasing the volume of fluid that have to be expelled from respiratory tract

A

Emetics

B

Expectorant

C

Astringents

D

Respiratory Stimulants

Question 10

The assay of Calcium Gluconate is conducted by which titration method ?

A

Acid-base titration

B

Redox titration

C

Direct Complexometric method

D

Precipitation method

Question 11

The sterilization technique in which the final container is heated at 80°C for one hour on each of three successive days

A

Tyndallisation

B

Pastueration

C

Holder method

D

Flash method

Question 12

Unequal distribution of colour on a coloured tablet is known

A

Capping

B

Lamination

C

Mottling

D

Picking

Question 13

In hot air oven the heat is transferred from source to the article by

A

Conduction

B

Convection

C

Radiation

D

All of the above

Question 14

The following compounds are used as binders and adhesives except :

A

Acacia

B

Starch

C

Stearic acid

D

Cellulose derivative

Question 15

Capsules that do not disintegrate in the stomach but break up in the intestine are known as

A

Sustained release capsules

B

Enteric coated capsules

C

Rectal capsule

D

Soft gelatine capsule

Question 16

All the gases given below are used for gaseous sterilization except

A

Formaldehyde

B

Ethylene Oxide

C

Nitrous oxide

D

Beta-Propiolactone

Question 17

The hygroscopic or eutectic substance that can be filled into hard gelatine capsules as adsorbent are

A

Oxides of magnesium

B

Carbonates of calcium

C

Kaolin

D

All of the above

Question 18

In hard gelatine capsule the approximate capacity in mg of capsule number “0” is

A

950

B

650

C

450

D

300

Question 19

Which of the following is not used as enteric coating materials ?

A

Cellulose acetate phthalate

B

Gelatine solution

C

Acrylate polymers

D

Shellac

Question 20

In sterilization the time required at a given condition to achieve log reduction that is to kill 90 percent of organism is called

A

D-value

B

Z-value

C

F-value

D

F0-value

Question 21

Irregular lumps in which modular masses are embedded is the microscopic character of

A

Curaco Aloe

B

Cape Aloe

C

Socotrine Aloe

D

Zanzibar Aloe

Question 22

Purgative action of aloe is due to

A

Barbaloin

B

Aloesin

C

Aloin

D

Aloe-emodin

Question 23

Legal test is the identification test for

A

Digitalis

B

Senna

C

Aloe

D

Dioscorea

Question 24

Saffrole is the chemical constituent present in

A

Saffron

B

Nutmeg

C

Boswella

D

Senna

Question 25

Chemical constituent of Nuxvomica which is a dog poison

A

Strychnine

B

Vomicine

C

Brucine

D

Colubrine

Question 26

Hydnocarpus oil is the synonym of

A

Chaulmoogra oil

B

Linseed oil

C

Castor oil

D

Arachis oil

Question 27

The water soluble chemical constituent of ergot is

A

Ergotamine

B

Ergotoxine

C

Ergometrine

D

Ergosine

Question 28

Azadirachtin is the chemical constituent present in Neem act as

A

Anti-feedant

B

Insect repellent

C

Antiviral

D

Anti-asthmatic

Question 29

Which is used in cheese manufacturing as a substitute of rennin ?

A

Papain

B

Collagenase

C

Pepsin

D

Urokinase

Question 30

Vitamin A can be synthesized from

A

Kaladana

B

Lemon grass oil

C

Agar

D

Benzoin

Question 31

Coalescence of the dispersed globules and separation of the disperse as a separate layer in an emulsion is called

A

Cracking

B

Creaming

C

Phase inversion

D

Sticking

Question 32

An example of ointment prepared by chemical reaction method

A

Sulphur ointment

B

Whitfield"s ointment

C

Cetrimide ointment

D

Strong iodine ointment

Question 33

Abrasive agent used in dentifrices

A

Sodium Alginate

B

Calcium Carbonate

C

Sodium Lauryl sulphate

D

Sodium Benzoate

Question 34

Antioxidant used in lipsticks

A

Eosin

B

Coconut oil

C

Butylated hydroxy toluene

D

Titanium dioxide

Question 35

Non-aqueous oily vehicle used in parenteral depot formulations ?

A

Arachis oil

B

Ethyl alcohol

C

Propylene glycol

D

Glycerine

Question 36

Test which is used to ensure parenteral product is free from foreign particles

A

Sterility test

B

Clarity test

C

Leakage test

D

Pyrogen test

Question 37

Percentage w/v of Benzalkonium chloride in eye drop used as preservative

A

0.02

B

0.01

C

0.03

D

0.1

Question 38

Hair removed by chemical method is known as

A

Epilation

B

Depilation

C

Electrolysis

D

Conditioning

Question 39

Which is the pyrogen test for parenteral product ?

A

Limulus amoebocyte lyaste test

B

Legal test

C

Keak test

D

Baljet test

Question 40

Lyophilisation is the another name of

A

Tricturation

B

Freeze drying

C

Kneading

D

Sedimentation

Question 41

The chemical nature of the antineoplastic drug cisplatin is

A

Cis – diamminedichloroplatinum II

B

Trans – diamminedichloroplatinum IV

C

Cis – diamminemonochloroplatinum II

D

Trans – diamminemonochloroplatinum IV

Question 42

The mechanism of action of Ethacrynic acid as loop diuretic is due to

A

the presence of COOH group

B

the presence of aromatic ring

C

the presence of α1 β – unsaturated ketone forming covalent bond with sulfhydryl groups

D

None of the above

Question 43

Identify the antiparkinsonian drug

A

Biperiden

B

Tropicamide

C

Propantheline

D

Cyclopentolate

Question 44

Identify the antidote for cholinesterase inhibitors

A

Neostigmine

B

Pyridostigmine

C

Physostigmine

D

Pralidoxime

Question 45

IUPAC name for Salbutamol

A

5 – [2 – (tert-butylamino) – 1 – hydroxy ethyl] benzene – 1, 3 – diol

B

4 – [2 – (tert-butylamino) – 1 – hydroxyl ethy] – 2 – (hydroxymethyl) phenol

C

4 – [1 – hydroxy – 2 – (propan – 2 – ylamino) ethyl] benzene – 1, 2 – diol

D

None of the above

Question 46

Haloperidol – A tranquilizer belong to which class of drugs ?

A

Phenothiazine

B

Xanthenes

C

Butyrophenone

D

Carbamates

Question 47

Penicillin V is also known as

A

Phenoxypropyl penicillin

B

Benzathine penicillin

C

Benzyl penicillin

D

Phenoxymethyl penicillin

Question 48

Identify an antitubercular drug which is chemically an aliphatic diamine.

A

Ethionamide

B

Ethambutol

C

Isoniazid

D

Pyrazinamide

Question 49

The antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces venezuelae

A

Chloramphenicol

B

Novobiocin

C

Lincomycin

D

Erythromycin

Question 50

Co-trimoxazole contains two antibiotics. What are they ?

A

Sulphadiazine and trimethoprim

B

Sulphaguanidine and trimethoprim

C

Sulfacetamide and trimethoprim

D

Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim

Question 51

Identify the barbiturate used as general anaesthetic.

A

Phenobarbitone

B

Secobarbitone

C

Methohexital

D

Mephobarbitone

Question 52

Which of the following is used in obstetrical pain ?

A

Morphine hydrochloride

B

Naloxone

C

Pentazocine

D

Pethidine hydrochloride

Question 53

Identify the method of metabolism of salicylates in our body.

A

Hydroxylation

B

Reduction

C

Conjugation with glucuronic acid

D

Oxidation

Question 54

Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

B

Primidone

C

Ethosuximide

D

Methoin

Question 55

These compounds inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into adrenergic neurons. What are they ?

A

Barbiturates

B

Tricyclic antidepressants

C

β-blockers

D

Benzodiazepines

Question 56

Drug used in the diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

B

Physostigmine

C

Pyridostigmine

D

None of the above

Question 57

Identify the calcium channel blocker.

A

Quinidine

B

Lidocaine

C

Verapamil

D

Propranolol

Question 58

Loop diuretics act as

A

Inhibitors of Na^+ – K^+ – 2Cl^– cotransport

B

Inhibitors of Na^+ – Cl^ – symport

C

Potassium sparing diuretic

D

Inhibitors of renal epithelial Na^+ channel

Question 59

The following is not an antifungal drug :

A

Amphotericin-B

B

Neomycin

C

Clotrimazole

D

Terbinafine

Question 60

Oral hypoglycaemic agent causing lactic acidosis as most serious complication

A

Phenformin

B

Tolbutamide

C

Glibenclamide

D

Glipizide

Question 61

Schedule M1 deals with the requirements of factory premises for the manufacturing of

A

Medical devises

B

Homeopathic preparations

C

Cosmetics

D

Unani drugs

Question 62

A license to sell stock and exhibit or offer for sale of distribute drugs specified in schedule C1 shall be issued in form

A

21

B

21A

C

20F

D

19

Question 63

The drug Clofazimine comes under schedule

A

G

B

H

C

H1

D

X

Question 64

The place where the licensee employ the services of a qualified person but drugs are not compounded are called

A

Chemist and druggist

B

Pharmacy

C

Wholesale shop

D

Manufacturing unit

Question 65

The ER 1991 prescribes practical training for registration of pharmacist is

A

500 hours

B

600 hours

C

450 hours

D

700 hours

Question 66

Pharmacy inspectors are appointed by

A

State Government

B

State Pharmacy Council

C

Drugs Controller

D

District Medical Officer

Question 67

Who among the given is not the common member of PCI and DTAB ?

A

DGHS

B

Director, CDL Kolkata

C

Director CDRI

D

Drugs Controller of India

Question 68

The schedule of drugs and magic remedies act 1954 includes which of the following diseases ?

A

Dropsy

B

Diabetes

C

Brights disease

D

All of the above

Question 69

Example of narcotic drug

A

Cannabis leaves without tops

B

Coca leaf without ecgonine

C

Popy seed

D

None of the above

Question 70

Which of the following is a psychotropic substance ?

A

Mazindol

B

Methyprylon

C

Pentazocine

D

All of the above

Question 71

Which of the following method is used for sales promotion ?

A

Coupon

B

Trade stamp

C

Free sample

D

All of the above

Question 72

B category items represent which of the following money value ?

A

70-75%

B

15-20%

C

5-10%

D

60-70%

Question 73

A method of recording store balances after every receipt and issue to facilitate regular checking and to obviate closing down stock taking

A

ABC analysis

B

VED analysis

C

Perpetual inventory control

D

EOQ

Question 74

Which of the following are essential qualities of a salesman ?

A

Moral

B

Vocational

C

Mental

D

All of the above

Question 75

The scrap which can be anticipated during manufacturing is called

A

Administrative scrap

B

Defective scrap

C

Legitimate scrap

D

Surplus scrap

Question 76

Mixed bank is a combination of

A

Industrial and Co-operative Bank

B

Industrial and Commercial Bank

C

Commercial and Savings Bank

D

Commercial and Exchange Bank

Question 77

Given in the following are the sources of primary data except :

A

Trade associations

B

Salesman

C

Consumers

D

Dealers

Question 78

The minimum area required to open a wholesale drugstore is

A

110 sq.ft.

B

108 sq.ft.

C

100 sq.ft.

D

120 sq.ft.

Question 79

The tender issued only in those cases where an item of a proprietary nature or where repetitive order is to be issued in short period

A

Oral tender

B

Limited tender

C

Single tender

D

Open tender

Question 80

Creditorship securities which provide funds to the company on loan basis rather than capital basis is called

A

Debentures

B

Shares

C

Preference share

D

Equity shares

Question 81

According to Indian Pharmacopoeia, the storage condition : “Store in refrigerator” means store between :

A

8 to 15 degrees

B

15 to 25 degrees

C

25 to 30 degrees

D

2 to 8 degrees

Question 82

What is the principle of Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate (LAL) test for pyrogen ?

A

Oxidation

B

Coagulation

C

Alkylation

D

Reduction

Question 83

Who is the secretary of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC) ?

A

The Chief Physician

B

The Chief Pharmacist

C

The Hospital Administrator

D

The representative from nursing staff

Question 84

Which of the following glass container has high hydrolytic resistance and a high thermal shock resistance ?

A

Type I Glass

B

Type II Glass

C

Type III Glass

D

All of the above

Question 85

Choose the incorrect statements about HEPA filter :

A

It is useful for the preparation of parenteral product.

B

It has the efficiency of removing 100% of particles of 0.3 mcm or larger.

C

It is generally described as high-efficiency particulate air filter.

D

None of the above

Question 86

The word “Ambulatory care” means

A

Emergency care

B

Outpatient care

C

In patient care

D

Both (A) and (B)

Question 87

The time taken between placing of an order and receipt of items is known as

A

Lag time

B

Carrying time

C

Lead time

D

Delivery time

Question 88

Which of the following criteria should be taken into consideration for entry or deletion of drugs in Hospital formulary ?

A

The manufacturer of drug should have the license under Drug and Cosmetic Rules.

B

The drug must be recognized by Pharmacopoeia.

C

The drug should not have secret composition.

D

All of the above

Question 89

The appropriate pH range for ophthalmic preparations is

A

8.5 – 10.5

B

6.5 – 8.5

C

4.5 – 6.5

D

2.5 – 3.5

Question 90

The process that eliminates many or all pathogenic micro-organisms, except bacterial spores, on inanimate objects is known as

A

Sterilization

B

Cleaning

C

Disinfection

D

Tyndallization

Question 91

Drug-induced fatal malformations are more if the drugs given in which of the following weeks of pregnancy ?

A

Before the 3rd week

B

Between the 3rd and the 11th week

C

Between the 28th and the 34th week

D

After the 34th week

Question 92

Red blood cell destruction can be triggered in individuals with Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency by the following drugs except :

A

Sulfa drugs

B

Quinine

C

Nalidixic acid

D

Diphenhydramine

Question 93

What are adverse drug reactions (ADRs) ?

A

The noxious and unintended effect of drugs which occurs at normal doses.

B

The synergistic effects that are seen when some drugs are administered concurrently.

C

Harmful chemical interactions between two drugs that are used to treat the same clinical symptoms.

D

Responses to increased drug doses required to achieve the same physiological outcome.

Question 94

Which of the following agents is an opioid antagonist ?

A

Morphine

B

Naloxone

C

Amphetamine

D

Disulfiram

Question 95

Which route of drug administration is most likely to undergo first-pass effect ?

A

Intramuscular

B

Intravenous

C

Oral

D

Sublingual

Question 96

Which one of the following drugs is used as an antidote in organophosphorus poisoning ?

A

Acetylcholine

B

Atropine

C

Desferoxamine

D

Dimercaprol

Question 97

What is the normal fasting blood sugar level range ?

A

70-100 mg/dl

B

70-140 mg/dl

C

100-125 mg/dl

D

100-140 mg/dl

Question 98

The following food stuffs can cause hypertensive crisis during non-selective Mono Amino Oxidase (MAO) inhibitor therapy :

A

Aged cheese

B

Red wine

C

Chocolate

D

All of the above

Question 99

The following are the signs and symptoms of tuberculosis excepts :

A

Yellow sputum with blood spot

B

Fatigue and weight loss

C

Morning stiffness

D

Night sweats

Question 100

The World Health Organization (WHO) programme for International Adverse Drug Reaction Monitoring is a worldwide collaboration of more than 150 countries whose aims are the safer use of medicines for patients everywhere and building a global culture of patient safety. The monitoring centre is situated at

A

Geneva

B

Uppsala

C

Vienna

D

London

003/2021 - Pharmacist Gr. 2 (SR For SC/ST) - Health Services