Kerala PSC Non Vocational Teacher Geography (Junior) PYQ

Question 1

Who wrote the book "The Nature of Geography"?

A

Peter Haggett

B

David Harvey

C

Richard Hartshorne

D

Allen Pred

Question 2

Who is considered as the key proponent of "Time Geography"?

A

Torsten Hagerstrand

B

Anne Buttimer

C

Yi Fu Tuan

D

David Harvey

Question 3

Which of the statements about Topophilia are true?
i. The term was coined by Yi Fu Tuan
ii. Topophilia implies "a strong love or affection for a particular place"
iii. The concept was introduced in the book titled "Topophilia : A study of Environmental perception attitudes and values"
options

A

i, ii and iii

B

i and ii only

C

ii and iii only

D

ii only

Question 4

Which of the following are correctly matched?
i. Muqaddimah - Ibn Khaldun
ii. Rihlah - Ibn Batuta
iii. Kitab al Ashkal - Al Balakhi
iv. Kitab ul Hind - Al Biruni
options

A

ii, iii and iv only

B

i and iii only

C

ii and iv only

D

i, ii, iii and iv

Question 5

Read the statements given below. Which one of them is false?

A

R.J. Chorley in his work "Geomorphology and General Systems Theory" discussed the application of open and closed systems in Geomorphology

B

Berry developed a basis for the study of a mountain as a system

C

R J Chorley was the first geographer to introduce the systems theory into the realm of geography

D

Leopold and Landbein applied concepts of entropy and steady state in the study of the fluvial system

Question 6

Who amongst these is considered the Father of Geodesy?

A

Thales

B

Anaximander

C

Eratosthenes

D

Herodotus

Question 7

Who among the following is considered the founder of British School of Geography at the Oxford University?

A

Dudley Stamp

B

Halford John Mackinder

C

R J Chorley

D

Peter Haggett

Question 8

Who coined the term 'permafrost'?

A

Alexander von Humboldt

B

William Morris Davis

C

L C King

D

Walther Penck

Question 9

Which of the following concept is/are correct about the formation of solar system and the earth?
i. Monistic concept involving only one heavenly body
ii. Dualistic concept involving two heavenly bodies
iii. Trihybrid concept or binary star concept involving more than two heavenly bodies

A

only (ii and iii)

B

only (i and ii)

C

All of the above (i, ii and iii)

D

only (i and iii)

Question 10

Which of the following statement is/are correct about continental drift theory?
i. The earth is divided into three layers viz, SIAL, SIMA and NIFE.
ii. Both continents and ocean are in motion
iii. After fragmentation, the continents drifted equatorward and westwards

A

only (ii and iii)

B

only (i and ii)

C

all of the above (i, ii and iii)

D

only (i and iii)

Question 11

Which of the following is/are example for oceanic intraplate volcanism?

A

Azores and Madeira

B

Tibesti and Hoggar

C

Yellowstone

D

Rheinish massif

Question 12

Following one is not natural causes of earthquakes

A

Crustal contraction

B

Reservoir induced seismicity

C

Plate tectonic

D

Faulting

Question 13

Angular rock debris created by freeze-thaw action is known as _____________.

A

Talus

B

Creep

C

Ice wedging

D

Spalling

Question 14

Gradation is achieved by simultaneous process of the following two process are

A

Decay and decomposition

B

Oxidation and carbonation

C

Degradation and aggradation

D

Hydration and solution

Question 15

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Dam-site selection?
i. A water-tight basin of adequate size
ii. A narrow outlet of basin
iii. Opportunity to build an adequate and safe spillway to carry surplus waters

A

only (ii and iii)

B

only (i and iii)

C

all of the above (i, ii and iii)

D

only (i and ii)

Question 16

A mass of ice on the flanks of a mountain range formed by the coalescence of a number of parallel valley glacier is called

A

Cirque glacier

B

Niche glacier

C

Mountain glacier

D

Piedmont glacier

Question 17

Which among the following refers to the cold high-pressure winds that are carried downslopes due to the force of gravity?

A

Khamsin

B

Harmattan

C

Katabatic wind

D

Anabatic wind

Question 18

Assertion : Tropical Easterly Jet streams occur near tropopause over the land area between Africa and Southeast Asia
Reason : The Sub Tropical Jet Streams shift Northwards to the Himalayas in Summer

A

Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B

Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C

Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect

D

Reason is correct but assertion is incorrect

Question 19

Match the layers of the atmosphere with respective characteristics

Choose the right option :

A

A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

B

A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

C

A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

D

A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

Question 20

Which among the following is not a form of condensation?

A

Fog

B

Sleet

C

Dew

D

Frost

Question 21

Identify the wrongly matched pair :

A

Australia - Willy Willies

B

Philippines - Baguio

C

Hurricanes - North Americ

D

Cyclones - China

Question 22

Which among the following represents the Mediterranean climate in Koppen's climatic classification?

A

Cf

B

Cs

C

Df

D

Dw

Question 23

Identify the incorrect statements :
A. Weakening or Reversal of Walker Circulation results in El Nino events
B. During El Nino events the Upwelling of cold water on the Peruvian Pacific coast strengthens
C. La Nina events occur due to the strengthening of Walker Circulation
D. El Nino events decrease air pressure in Western Pacific

A

A and B

B

B only

C

B and D

D

A only

Question 24

Which among the following clouds are capable of producing thunderstorms :

A

Cumulonimbus

B

Nimbostratus

C

Altocumulus

D

Stratocumulus

Question 25

Which of the following statement regarding Nitrogen cycle is correct?

A

Nitrogen fixation is the process that converts nitrate into nitrogen gas

B

Nitrification is the process that converts ammonia to nitrate

C

Denitrification is the process in which micro organisms break down organic nitrogen into ammonia

D

Ammonification is the process of converting free nitrogen into more reactive nitrogen compounds

Question 26

The drought condition that arises as a result of scarcity of water in the source

A

Agricultural Drought

B

Hydrological drought

C

Meteorological drought

D

Soil moisture drought

Question 27

Consider the given statements about human modification of landscape and identify the correct statements
i. Excavation can result in subsidence depression
ii. Large scale excavation leads to disruption of wildlife habitats and surface drainage
iii Many of the world's cities like Bangkok, Venice etc are threatened by subsidence due to removal of fluids

A

i and ii

B

i and iii

C

i, ii and iii

D

ii and iii

Question 28

The gases that cause acid rain are

A

Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide

B

Sulphur oxide and nitrogen dioxide

C

Sulphur oxide and carbon monoxide

D

Nitrogen dioxide and chloro fluro carbons

Question 29

Three important environment acts of India and the years in which these came into effect is given identify the correct pair/pairs
i. Hazardous Waste Management Rule - 1989
ii. Environment (Protection) Act - 1987
iii. The Air (Protection and Control of Pollution) Act - 1986

A

ii only

B

ii and iii

C

iii only

D

i only

Question 30

The type of biodiversity that refers to the variation of genes with in a species

A

Ecosystem Diversity

B

Species Diversity

C

Genetic Diversity

D

Functional Diversity

Question 31

Match the following

A

i-1, ii-2, iii-3

B

i-3, ii-2, iii-1

C

i-1, ii-3, iii-2

D

i-2, ii-3, iii-1

Question 32

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to suburbanisation?

A

It is the movement of people from surrounding areas of the city to city centre

B

It is the movement of people from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city in search of a better quality of living

C

It is the movement of people from urban areas to rural areas in search of better environment

D

It is the movement of people from rural areas to sub-urban areas for better employment opportunities

Question 33

Which one of the followings is not true about Rural-Urban Fringe?

A

It is a zone of transition between the continuously built-up urban and suburban areas of the central city and the rural hinter land

B

The rural-urban fringe is often described as the garbage and sewage dump of the city

C

This is often been called as the "Green Belt" or "Green-Field Site".

D

The size of land holdings and farms is very large

Question 34

Which one of the following is not correctly matched as suggested by Griffith Taylor (1949)

A

Infantile towns - Haphazard distribution of shops and houses, no factories

B

Juvenile towns - differentiation of zones begins, shops are separated

C

Mature towns - A clear segregation of first class houses

D

Adolescent towns - Scattered factories, but no definite zone for first-class houses

Question 35

The census of India defines an urban area as having
1. a density of population of at least 400 persons per square miles
2. a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee
3. at least 75 per cent of workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
4. a minimum population of 5000 persons
5. at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
Choose the correct on

A

1, 2, 3 and 4

B

2, 3 and

C

2, 4 and 5

D

1, 2, 4 and 5

Question 36

Consider following statements about satellite towns
1. A satellite town is a town designed to house the overspill population of a major city and operating as a discrete, self-contained entity, theoretically independent of the central city
2. Satellite towns are strategically located close enough to a major city for commuting, yet far enough to prevent merging into the urban sprawl
3. Navi Mumbai and Faridabad are the examples of satellite towns
4. Satellite towns alleviate the population pressure on main cities, reducing overcrowding and strain on infrastructure
5. Satellite towns are an integral part of the rural-urban fringe zone
Which of the above statements are correct?

A

1, 2, 4 and 5

B

1, 3, 4 and 5

C

1, 2, 3 and 4

D

All of the above

Question 37

Match the followings :

Choose the correct option

A

a-2, b-4, c-1, d-5

B

a-2, b-3, c-5, d-4

C

a-3, b-4, c-5, d-1

D

a-2, b-5, c-1, d-4

Question 38

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
1. Ecological theory of City Structure - Murphy
2. The concentric Zone model - E.W. Burgess
3. The Sectoral theory of Urban land use - H. Hoyt and M.R. Davis
4. The Multiple Nuclei Model - C.D. Harris and E.L. Ullman

A

2

B

1

C

3

D

4

Question 39

Nearest Neighbour Technique is used to explain distribution of settlements. If the value of "Rn" is 2.15, what will be the pattern?

A

Clustered

B

Uniform

C

Random

D

No pattern

Question 40

What are the 3R's strategies that are useful and practiced for conserving natural resources?

A

Recycle, Regenerate, Reuse

B

Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

C

Resume, Regenerate, Reuse

D

Reduce, Reuse, Redistribute

Question 41

Crop rotation in many parts of the world is done in order to preserve

A

Soil erosion

B

Soil moisture

C

Soil salinity

D

Soil fertility

Question 42

As per the Von Thunen's agricultural location theory the first zone away from the city centre belongs to

A

Market gardening

B

Intensive crop rotation

C

Field grass with emphasis on dairy products

D

Wood production

Question 43

Which of the following is not the objective of the WTO?

A

To improve the standard of living of peoples of the member countries

B

To enlarge production and trade of goods

C

To protect environment

D

To improve the Balance of payment situation of the member countries

Question 44

The Location triangle concept for finding the optimum location of Industries was given by?

A

Max Weber

B

Alfred Weber

C

Karl Marx

D

August Losch

Question 45

The major agricultural regions of the world were first delineated by

A

H. Bobek

B

L.D. Stamp

C

D. Whittlesey

D

J.E. Spencer

Question 46

The busiest oceanic trade route of the world is in

A

Arctic Ocean

B

Indian Ocean

C

Atlantic Ocean

D

Pacific Ocean

Question 47

Ports of the Baltic Sea remain open for trade even during winter because of which one of the followings:

A

North Atlantic Drift, a warm ocean current flow in the region

B

Local winds keep it warm

C

It lies in the tropical belt

D

Western disturbances cause abrupt rise in the temperature

Question 48

The imaginery line which join the points where true north and magnetic north coincide

A

Isogonic line

B

Agonic line

C

Isoclinic line

D

Isodynamicline

Question 49

Consider the given statements about latitude and identify the correct one

A

Lines of latitude are parallel to each other

B

Latitude is the angular distance east or west of prime meridian

C

The latitudes are slightly smaller near the poles

D

One minute of latitude is about 5 kilometre

Question 50

Which of the following statement/statements regarding international map projection is/are true?
a. it is modified form of polyconic projection
b. the parallels are drawn true to scale
c. the projection is drawn on 1:1 million scale
d. between 60°N and S, each sheet covers 4° latitudes and 12° longitudes

A

a and b

B

a, b, c, d

C

a, b, c

D

d and c

Question 51

Which of the following is not an example of thematic map?

A

Vegetation map

B

Soil map

C

Population distribution map

D

Cadastral map

Question 52

Identify the correct statement about Hue

A

Hue is the quality which differntiates one colour from other

B

Hue is the sensitivity of colour

C

Hue is the gradation in brilliance from black to white

D

The shades between any two hues can be divided into 100 steps

Question 53

A leroy set is used for which purpose?

A

Drawing curves in maps

B

Map duplication

C

Lettering in maps

D

Drawing lines in maps

Question 54

Where is the headquarters of the survey of India located?

A

Hyderabad

B

Dehradun

C

Pune

D

Bengaluru

Question 55

The arrangement of the electromagnetic waves in the electromagnetic spectrum according to increasing wavelength

A

Radio waves, microwaves, ultraviolet rays, VS, IR, X rays, Gamma rays

B

Radio waves, microwaves, IR, UV rays, visible spectrum, X rays, Gamma rays

C

Gamma rays, X rays, IR, VS, UV, MV, RW

D

Gamma rays, X rays, UV rays, VS, IR, MW, RW

Question 56

The term used for the magnitude of displacement in an aerial photograph between the top and bottom of elevated object

A

Horizontal displacement

B

Drift

C

Relief displacement

D

Crab

Question 57

For which of the following field/s of agriculture, remote sensing techniques can be used?
a. pest/disease detection and incidence forecasting
b. crop area estimation and production forecast
c. agriculture drought assessment and monitoring

A

a, b and c

B

b and c only

C

b only

D

a and c only

Question 58

The spatial resolution of linear imaging self scanning sensor - 1 in IRSIA

A

36.25m

B

70 m

C

73 m

D

75 m

Question 59

Which of the following statement is correct about thematic dimension of data?

A

It provides a record of when the data was collected

B

It describes the character of real world feature which the date refer

C

It provides the information about the location of feature observe

D

It is often referred as spatial data

Question 60

Which of the following is not a digitizing error?

A

Missing entities

B

Duplicate entities

C

Mislocated entities

D

Fuzzy boundaries

Question 61

The first successfully launched civilian hyperspectral satellite sensor

A

Hyperion on EO-1

B

AVIRIS

C

HYDICE

D

PROBE-1

Question 62

Expansion of SAGA GIS

A

System for Augmented Geospatial Analysis Geo Information System

B

Semi Automated Geospatial Analysis

C

System for Automated Geo Scientific Analysis Geographic Information System

D

System for Attribute Geo Scientific Application Geographic Information System

Question 63

The state that does not share boundary with Nepal

A

Uttarakhand

B

West Bengal

C

Bihar

D

Himachal Pradesh

Question 64

The confluence of tributaries of Alakanada - Ganga is given. Which one is correctly matched?

A

Alakananda - Bhagirathi - Devaprayag

B

Alakananda - Pindar - Rudraprayag

C

Alakananda - Mandakini - Karnaprayag

D

Alakananda - Dhauliganga - Nandaprayag

Question 65

Identify the correct order of most populous states in India 2011

A

West Bengal, Maharashtra, Bihar, UP

B

UP, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

C

UP, West Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra

D

West Bengal, UP, Bihar, Maharashtra

Question 66

Locations of four national parks in India is given. Identify the correct one

A

Great Himalayan NP - Himachal Pradesh

B

Mudumali NP - Andhra Pradesh

C

Papikondalu Natural Park - Tamil Nadu

D

Jim Corbett National Park - Uttar Pradesh

Question 67

Cardomom hill is located in which district of Kerala?

A

Kasargod

B

Kannur

C

Idukki

D

Wayanad

Question 68

The district in Kerala which receives least amount of rainfall

A

Idukki

B

Malappuram

C

Palakkad

D

Thiruvananthapuram

Question 69

The taluk in Keral where Black Soil is found

A

Kuttanad

B

Karunagapally

C

Nilam bur

D

Chittur

Question 70

Placer gold deposits occur in Kerala at
i) Punnapuzha
ii) Chaliyarpuzha
iii) Noolpuzha

A

i and ii only

B

i, ii and iii

C

ii and iii only

D

i and iii only

Question 71

Match the following instructional objectives in List I with examples in List II. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below

A

i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

B

i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b

C

i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

D

i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

Question 72

Which one of the following is a scaled-down teaching situation

A

Macro teaching

B

Team teaching

C

Cooperative teaching

D

Microteaching

Question 73

Read the following statements-one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) and choose the correct answer
Assertion (A) : The student evaluation system should solely rely on standardised test scores to ensure fairness and objectivity
Reason (R) : Standardized tests are the most accurate measure of a student's knowledge and skills, regardless of individual factors like learning styles or socioeconomic status

A

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C

(A) is true but (R) is false

D

Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 74

Which of the following teaching aids is most effective for promoting student engagement and comprehension in a science class?

A

A textbook

B

A lecture

C

A hands-on activity

D

A video

Question 75

Which of the following teaching methods is most effective for promoting student autonomy and critical thinking skills?

A

Lecture

B

Inquiry-based learning

C

Direct instruction

D

Rote memorization

Question 76

Match the following in List I with that of List II

Codes :

A

i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

B

i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b

C

i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

D

i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

Question 77

Identify the correct sequence of research steps :

A

Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings

B

Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings

C

Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings

D

Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection

Question 78

Read the following statements - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions
Find the correct answer from the codes given below :

A

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B

Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C

(A) is true, but (R) is false

D

Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 79

Which of the following actions constitutes a violation of informed consent in research?

A

A researcher fails to disclose the potential risks associated with participation in the study

B

A participant is not allowed to withdraw from the study after providing informed consent

C

A researcher uses deception to recruit participants for their study

D

A participant is not offered any compensation for their involvement in the study

Question 80

Assertion (A) : A well-written thesis statement is a concise and specific sentence that summarizes the main argument of a thesis.
Reason (R) : A strong thesis should leave no room for ambiguity or interpretation, providing a clear roadmap for the reader to follow the argument

A

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C

(A) is true but (R) is false

D

Both (A) and (R) are false

Question 81

Which of the following state is an example for bicameral legislative system?

A

Karnataka

B

Punjab

C

Tamilnadu

D

Rajasthan

Question 82

Article 270 is repealled from Indian Constitution on

A

July 3, 2019

B

August 5, 2019

C

December 5, 2019

D

January 1, 2020

Question 83

Father of preamble of Indian constitution is

A

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B

Sardar Vallabbbhai Patel

C

Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D

Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 84

The regional languages of India added in

A

11th Schedule of Constitution

B

8th Schedule of constitution

C

10th schedule of constitution

D

12th schedule of constitution

Question 85

Which of the following statement is/are correct about Indian constitution
i. The concept of federalism have been taken from French constitution
ii. The concept of fundamental rights have been taken from American constitution
iii. Idea of residuary powers have been from Japanese constitution
iv. The idea of concurrent list have been taken from Australian constitution

A

only (i and iii)

B

only (iii and iv)

C

all the above (i, ii, iii and iv)

D

only (ii and iv)

Question 86

The symbol of Indian Constitution is

A

Tiger

B

Lion

C

Himalayas brown bear

D

Elephant

Question 87

Who caligraphed the original preamble of Indian constitution

A

H.V.R. Iyengar

B

Sachidananda Sinha

C

Prem Bihari Narain Raizada

D

Dr. S. Rajendra Prasad

Question 88

How many female members were present in the constitutional assembly

A

10

B

15

C

12

D

17

Question 89

Which amendment provides 1/3 reservation for women in Loksabha and state assemblies

A

106th Amendment

B

105th amendment

C

107th amendment

D

108th amendment

Question 90

Council of states is also known as

A

Loksabha

B

Rajya sabha

C

Niti Ayog

D

Nirvachan Sadan

Question 91

Film director who won life time achievement award of the 27th International Film Festival of Kerala in 2022

A

Krzysztof Zanussi

B

Kim Ki Duk

C

Bela Tarr

D

Fernando Solanas

Question 92

Which of the following novels are written by P Valsala
i. Arakkillam
ii. Koomankolly
iii. Oorukaval
iv Gauthaman

A

only (i and iv)

B

only (i, iii and iv)

C

Only (i, ii and iv)

D

Only (ii and iv)

Question 93

Which of the following statement is/are correct about the Travancore
i. Pandarapattam proclamation was in 1867
ii. Formation of legislative council was in 1888
iii. Department of agriculture was organised in 1910
iv. Establishment of Travancore university was in 1937

A

Only (iii and iv)

B

Only (i and iv)

C

only (i, ii and iv)

D

only (ii and iv)

Question 94

Which of the following organizations were not started by Pandit Karuppan
i. Kalyanadayini Sabha
ii. Samasta Kerala Araya Mahajana Yogam
iii. Valasamudhaya Parishkarani Sabha
iv. Araya Vamsa Paripalana Yogam

A

only (i and iii)

B

only (i and iv)

C

only (ii and iv)

D

only (i, ii and iv)

Question 95

Match Column I with column II and select the correct option

A

a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

B

a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

C

a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

D

a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

Question 96

Which of the following statement is/are correct?
i. The special conference of the S.N.D.P Yogam held at Changanacherry passed the resolution in support of abstention
ii. The meeting of Ezhava Youth league at Karungappally in 1933 was under the presidentship of C Keshavan
iii. Shivagiri Mutt was established at Varkalai in 1903
iv. Treatment of Tiyyas in Travancore was written by M. Govindan

A

only (ii and iii)

B

only (iii and iv)

C

only (i, ii and iv)

D

only (i and iii)

Question 97

Which of the following statement is/are correct
i. Vaikom Satyagraha was to get approach road to Vaikam temple opened for the Avarnas.
ii. Suchindram temple Satyagraha was to get the temple opened to all Hindus.
iii. Guruvayur satyagraha started to get Guruvayoor temple open to all Hindus
iv. Paliyam Satyagraha was to get the road in front of main residence of the Paliat Achan open to Avarnas.

A

only (i, ii and iii)

B

only (i and iii)

C

only (ii and iv)

D

all of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)

Question 98

Which among the following is correct?
i. Annie Mascarene under took train journey across Travancore state causing embarrassment to the government in September 1938
ii. Accamma Cheriyan led the state congress demonstration in Thiruvananthapuram on 23rd October 1938
iii. Elizabeth Kuruvilla was the fifth acting president of state congress in 1938
iv. A V Kuttimalu Amma was associated with Khadi pracharana sangh at Calicut

A

only (ii, iii and iv)

B

only (i and iv)

C

only (i, ii and iv)

D

only (ii and iii)

Question 99

Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option

A

a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

B

a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

C

a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

D

a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

Question 100

Which of the following statement is/are correct
i. Rev. J Dawson made the first Shanar converts around Nagercoil
ii. Rev. Charles Mead was responsible for getting the right for Shanar Christian women to cover their breast with a distinctive jacket
iii. LMS missionaries campaign for the abolition of slavery in Travancore started in 1847
iv. The first government vernacular school in Trivandrum was opened in August 1866

A

only (i, ii and iii)

B

only (ii, iii and iv)

C

only (i, iii and iv)

D

all of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)

009/2024/OL - Non Vocational Teacher Geography (Junior)