Kerala PSC Laboratory Technician/ Assistant Gr II Answer Key

Question 1

The characteristic features of trophozoites of Giardia spp. are:

A

Single nucleus, pseudopodia and kinetoplast

B

One macronucleus, cilia and food vacuoles

C

Two symmetrical nuclei, central axostyle and flagella

D

Four nuclei, rod shaped chromatoid bodies and cyst wall

Question 2

Schistosoma spindale eggs are:

A

Napolean hat shaped with miracidium and a terminal spine

B

Boomerang shaped with miracidium inside

C

Triangular with hexacanth embryo

D

Oval with yolk cells and operculum

Question 3

Wet blood film examination is preferred for detection of:

A

Anaplasma marginale

B

Theileria annulata

C

Babesia bigemina

D

Trypanosoma evansi

Question 4

Number of legs in larval acarines:

A

Six legs

B

Eight legs

C

Ten legs

D

None of the above

Question 5

The stain best suited to demonstrate intracellular parasites:

A

Gram’s stain

B

Giemsa stain

C

Field stain

D

Diff-quik stain

Question 6

Method of transmission of trypanosomosis by Tabanus fly:

A

Biological transmission

B

Cyclical transmission

C

Mechanical transmission

D

Larval transmission

Question 7

Organs of attachment in a trematode:

A

Suckers

B

Bothria

C

Buccal capsule

D

Both (A) and (B)

Question 8

The optimum temperature time combination for sterilizing glass wares in a hot air oven is:

A

100°C for 10min

B

160°C for 10min

C

160°C for one hour

D

120°C for 15min

Question 9

Incomplete posterior spiracle with three slits and a button are seen in the maggots of:

A

Oestrus ovis

B

Musca domestica

C

Calliphora spp.

D

Sarcophaga spp.

Question 10

Bug odour in adult bugs is caused by:

A

Mehlis glands

B

Paratergal plates

C

Stink glands

D

Laures gland

Question 11

A quantitative method for the determination of the severity of helminthic infections:

A

Eggs per gram

B

Stoll’s method

C

McMaster counting technique

D

All the above

Question 12

Which of the following is a dog tapeworm?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

B

Moneizia benedeni

C

Taenia solium

D

Davainea proglottina

Question 13

Lymph node smear can be prepared for diagnosis of schizogonous stages of the following:

A

Toxoplasma gondii

B

Theileria spp.

C

Babesia bigemina

D

Anaplasma marginale

Question 14

The most common site for blood collection in ruminants:

A

Saphenous vein

B

Jugular vein

C

Femoral vein

D

Cephalic vein

Question 15

The thickness of a blood smear is dependent on:

A

Size of the drop

B

Angle of the spreader

C

Speed with which spreader slide is pushed

D

All the above

Question 16

The stain that can be used for demonstration of siderocytes:

A

Alizarin red

B

Methyl blue

C

Prussian blue

D

Congo red

Question 17

The diluting fluid used for erythrocyte counting:

A

Thoma’s fluid

B

Hayem’s solution

C

Pilot’s solution

D

Hinkleman’s solution

Question 18

The type of anemia seen in iron deficiency:

A

Microcytic, hyperchromic

B

Macrocytic, hyperchromic

C

Microcytic, hypochromic

D

Macrocytic, hypochromic

Question 19

The test used to detect bile pigments in urine:

A

Ross test

B

Lignin test

C

Sulkowitch test

D

Gmelin test

Question 20

The special stain used to demonstrate fat in tissues:

A

Oil red O

B

Trichrome

C

Alizarin red

D

Congo red

Question 21

The type of jaundice in which van den Bergh’s test give biphasic reaction:

A

Prehepatic

B

Hepatic

C

Post hepatic

D

Both (B) and (C)

Question 22

The nutrient component of milk determined by Gerber test:

A

Protein

B

Vitamin C

C

Fat

D

All the above

Question 23

Ascending grades of alcohol is used in tissue processing and staining for:

A

Hydration

B

Clearing

C

Impregnation

D

Dehydration

Question 24

The species of animal in which Rouleaux formation is highest:

A

Cow

B

Dog

C

Horse

D

Goat

Question 25

The volume of semen per ejaculate is highest in:

A

Bull

B

Boar

C

Stallion

D

Ram

Question 26

Which of the following anticoagulants is indicated by green capped vacutainer tubes?

A

Heparin

B

EDTA

C

Sodium citrate

D

ACD

Question 27

Total magnification under high power in a compound microscope:

A

40X

B

400X

C

4000X

D

100X

Question 28

In which of the following systems, virus is not cultured:

A

Mac Conkey Agar

B

Laboratory animal

C

Cell culture

D

Embryonated egg

Question 29

Which of the following decolourizer is used in Acid fast staining?

A

Sulphuric acid

B

Ethyl Alcohol

C

Acid Alcohol

D

Acetic acid

Question 30

The mordant that is used in Gram’s staining is:

A

Gram’s Iodine

B

Potassium Iodide

C

Carbol fuchsin

D

Crystal violet

Question 31

Which of the following is not a compound stain?

A

Gram’s stain

B

Leishman’s stain

C

Wright’s stain

D

Giemsa stain

Question 32

An infection after medical or surgical management, whether or not patient was hospitalized:

A

Nosocomial infection

B

Latrogenic infection

C

Chronic infection

D

Peracute infection

Question 33

Percentage of agarose is maximum in:

A

Liquid media

B

Solid media

C

Semisolid medium

D

Peptone water

Question 34

Zoonotic disease means:

A

Disease transmitted from human to animals

B

Disease transmitted from animal to human

C

Disease transmitted from human to animal and vice versa

D

Disease affecting animals only

Question 35

Lactophenol cotton blue stain is associated with staining of:

A

Bacteria

B

Virus

C

Fungus

D

Protozoa

Question 36

Which of the following is not an anti-coagulant used in blood sample collection?

A

EDTA

B

Potassium Iodide

C

Sodium Citrate

D

Heparin

Question 37

Which of the following is not a serological test?

A

ELISA

B

Agar gel precipitation test

C

FAT

D

PCR

Question 38

In Mac Conkey agar, lactose fermenter colonies will be:

A

Pink colour

B

Colourless

C

White colour

D

Blue colour

Question 39

Temperature for serum inactivation to destroy complement:

A

50°C

B

56°C

C

60°C

D

63°C

Question 40

Which of the following is dry heat sterilization?

A

Boiling

B

Pressure cooker

C

Autoclave

D

Hot air oven

Question 41

Which of the following is the perfect microbial sterilization condition of Hot air oven?

A

100°C for one hour

B

121°C for 15 min

C

160°C for one hour

D

121°C for 30 min

Question 42

The counter stain used in Acid fast staining:

A

Dilute carbol fuchsin

B

Loeffler’s alkaline methylene blue

C

Crystal violet

D

ZN carbol fuchsin

Question 43

Which of the following is not used as enzyme in ELISA?

A

Alkaline phosphatase

B

Horse radish peroxidase

C

Beta galactosidase

D

Glutamate dehydrogenase

Question 44

Medium containing bile salt:

A

Tryptic soy agar

B

Sabouraud dextrose agar

C

Mac Conkey agar

D

Chocolate agar

Question 45

Percentage of Potassium hydroxide for fungal detection from skin scrapings:

A

1%

B

2%

C

10%

D

40%

Question 46

Widal test is used for diagnosis of:

A

Typhoid

B

Cholera

C

Anthrax

D

Salmonellosis

Question 47

Antiglobulin test is:

A

Coombs test

B

Widal test

C

Strauss test

D

Abortus Bang ring test

Question 48

Which of the following is Gram negative, non-spore forming bacteria?

A

Bacillus anthracis

B

Clostridium botulinum

C

Listeria monocytogenus

D

Eschericia coli

Question 49

McFaydean reaction is for detecting:

A

Bacillus subtilis

B

Bacillus anthracis

C

Clostridium tetani

D

Clostridium novyi

Question 50

Media prepared using blood :

A

Mac Conkey agar

B

Chocolate agar

C

Tryptic soy agar

D

Albimi agar

Question 51

Which of the following is a differential staining method?

A

Wright’s attaining

B

Leishman’s staining

C

Acid fast staining

D

Levaditi staining

Question 52

Expand HACCP :

A

Hazard And Critical Care Point

B

Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point

C

Hazard And Control Care Point

D

Hazard Analysis Care Control Point

Question 53

The organism which causes Food intoxication :

A

Coxiella burnettii

B

Escherichia coli

C

Bacillus cereus

D

Clostridium botulinum

Question 54

Pick out the one which is not an Emulsifier :

A

Gelatin

B

Vegetable gum

C

Caesin

D

Proprionate

Question 55

The Range of Specific Gravity of Milk at 15.6 degree Celsius :

A

1.02 – 1.05

B

1.10 – 1.50

C

0.09 – 1.0

D

1.12 – 1.15

Question 56

Dextrinisation process of Starch includes the following the changes :
1. Starch hydrolyses to simpler forms
2. Colour and flavour changes
3. Development of burnt, toasted flavour due to Enzymatic browning

A

1 and 3 only

B

1 and 2 only

C

2 and 3 only

D

All the above (1,2 and 3)

Question 57

The Fat globule size in Homogenised Milk :

A

0.1 – 20 micro meter

B

0.001 – 0.005 micro meter

C

0.006 – 0.0010 micro meter

D

0.0015 – 0.0020 micro meter

Question 58

Government of India Promulgated PFA and FPO act in the year :

A

1954, 1955

B

1954, 1956

C

1955, 1956

D

1956, 1954

Question 59

Which of the following Statements are correct Cheese Making?
1. Processing of Milk in to Cheese removes most of the water soluble Vitamins
2. Protein Concentration increases during Cheese Manufacture
3. Lactose Concentration increases during Cheese Manufacture

A

2 and 3 only

B

1 and 3 only

C

All the above (1, 2 and 3)

D

1 and 2 only

Question 60

Which of the following statements are correct about quality of Meat products?
1. The main Parameters of fresh Meat quality is colour and Marbling
2. To retain colour Oxygen is removed during Packaging
3. The Myoglobin whose main role in living Muscle is to bind Oxygen needed for various Chemical reactions

A

1 and 2 only

B

All the above (1, 2 and 3)

C

2 and 3 only

D

1 and 3 only

Question 61

Which of the following statements are correct on Adulteration of Food as per PFA?
1. If any constituent of the Article has been wholly or in part abstracted so as to affect injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
2. If any inferior or cheaper substance has been substituted wholly or in part for the Article, so as to affect injuriously the nature, substance or quality there of
3. If the article contains any prohibited preservatives or permitted preservatives in excess of the prescribed limits

A

1 and 2 only

B

1 and 3 only

C

All the above (1, 2 and 3)

D

2 and 3 only

Question 62

Which of the following statements are correct for AGMARK standards?
1. The AGMARK Act was enacted by the Govt. of India in 1938
2. The Directorate of Marketing and Inspection established under this Act, has set up a number Analytical Laboratories and commodities testing centres
3. The AGMARK standards are quality standards depending on the degree of excellence of the produce

A

All the above (1, 2 and 3)

B

1 and 2 only

C

1 and 3 only

D

2 and 3 only

Question 63

Which of the following statements are correct to Mould as a Microorganism?
1. Moulds grow over a wide range of PH from quite acid to fairly alkaline PH 2.0 – 8.5
2. Moulds are smaller than Bacteria and probably harmful
3. Moulds grow most rapidly at Temperature of 20-35 degree Celsius

A

All the above (1, 2 and 3)

B

2 and 3 only

C

1 and 2 only

D

1 and 3 only

Question 64

The working distance of a low power objective is :

A

0.5 - 1.5 mm

B

5 - 6 mm

C

0.15 - 0.20 mm

D

None of the above

Question 65

The height preferred for laboratory work benches where one stands to work is :

A

34-36 inches

B

40-42 inches

C

26-28 inches

D

46-48 inches

Question 66

Which glassware is used for the preparation of reagents where great accuracy is required?

A

Standard flask

B

Measuring cylinder

C

Conical flask

D

Beaker

Question 67

Fire caused by flammable liquids can be extinguished using :

A

Water

B

Fire blanket

C

CO₂ fire extinguisher

D

All of the above

Question 68

Name an instrument which utilizes the working principle ‘steam under pressure’ :

A

Incubator

B

Autoclave

C

Water bath

D

Hot air oven

Question 69

Identify the chemical which is not stored in brown coloured bottle :

A

Iodine

B

Potassium permanganate

C

Sodium nitroprusside

D

Hydrogen fluoride

Question 70

Which of the following is not true regarding an analytical balance?

A

Close the door of the balance while weighing

B

Use your hands to handle weights

C

Balance the pans before putting the weights

D

Balance should be in the resting positions before removing the weights

Question 71

Which of the following specimens should be processed immediately after collection?

A

Urine

B

Stool

C

CSF

D

Blood

Question 72

Scalds are not caused by :

A

Hot water

B

Contact with hot objects

C

Hot oil

D

Steam

Question 73

One of the chemicals listed below is stored under water to prevent explosion. Identify it.

A

Picric acid

B

Nitric acid

C

Trichloro acetic acid

D

Sulphosalicylic acid

Question 74

Which among the following is not a monochromator?

A

Prism

B

Filter

C

Diffraction grating

D

Mirror

Question 75

In quality control what does the term ‘Precision’ refers to :

A

Ability of a method to determine solely the analyte

B

Close to the actual value or true value

C

Closeness of the result on repeated analysis

D

Ability of a method to detect smallest quantity of analyte

Question 76

Which label should be exhibited on the containers that handles pathogenic organisms or materials that may contain them?

A

Toxic

B

Biohazard

C

Harmful

D

Irritant

Question 77

Thrombocytes are formed from :

A

Reticulocytes

B

Megakaryocyte

C

Myeloblast

D

Pronormoblast

Question 78

Fouchet’s reagent for testing bilirubin in urine contains :

A

TCA, 10% ferric chloride, distilled water

B

HCl, 10% ferric chloride, distilled water

C

TCA, Sodium nitroprusside, distilled water

D

None of the above

Question 79

In double oxalate mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate are mixed in the ratio :

A

1:2

B

2:3

C

3:2

D

1:3

Question 80

The concentration of formalin as routine fixative in histopathology is :

A

20%

B

10%

C

40%

D

100%

Question 81

Microscopic examination of stool showed the presence of a colourless, plano-convex shaped ova containing a tadpole shaped larva. Identify the ova :

A

Ova of A. Lumbricoides

B

Ova of T. solium

C

Ova of A. Duodenale

D

Ova of E. vermicularis

Question 82

Which among the following is not an RBC diluting fluid?

A

Hayem’s fluid

B

Dacie’s formol citrate

C

Toisson’s fluid

D

Hinglemann’s fluid

Question 83

The pH of buffer used in Leishman’s staining for peripheral smear examination is :

A

8.6

B

6

C

6.8

D

9

Question 84

Each 0.1 mm of buffy coat corresponds to about :

A

500 WBC/mm³ of blood

B

1000 WBC/ mm³ of blood

C

2000 WBC/ mm³ of blood

D

None of the above

Question 85

Which among the following is not a clearing agent?

A

Dioxane

B

Xylene

C

Chloroform

D

Cedar wood oil

Question 86

Commercially available anticoagulant tubes are universally colour coded. Tube with grey coloured top contains the anticoagulant :

A

K₃EDTA

B

Heparin

C

Sodium citrate

D

Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate

Question 87

In which microtome the block remains stationary and the knife moves during sectioning?

A

Rocking microtome

B

Rotary microtome

C

Sliding microtome

D

Base Sledge microtome

Question 88

Which urine crystal appears as hexagonal plates?

A

Calcium sulphate

B

Calcium carbonate

C

Triple phosphate

D

Cystine crystal

Question 89

—————— gram of NaCl in 1000 ml of solution is equivalent to 1 Molar solution.

A

48.5 gm

B

40.5 gm

C

58.5 gm

D

None

Question 90

Before cleaning with water, newly purchased Sodalime glassware should be treated overnight with :

A

5% Hcl

B

5% NaOH

C

15% NaOH

D

5% KOH

Question 91

Example of essential amino acid is :

A

Alanine

B

Glycine

C

Lysine

D

Tyrosine

Question 92

Glycolysis takes place in :

A

Cytoplasm

B

Mitochondria

C

Both (A) and (B)

D

None

Question 93

Fluoride inhibit —————— enzyme of glycolysis.

A

Hexokinase

B

Enolase

C

Aldolase

D

Pyruvate

Question 94

—————— is the storage form of lipids in adipose tissue.

A

LDL

B

VLDL

C

Triglycerides

D

HDL

Question 95

Normal urea level in plasma :

A

20 - 40 mg/dl

B

50 - 70 mg/dl

C

5 - 7 mg/dl

D

2 - 4 mg/dl

Question 96

—————— significantly elevated in myocardial infarction.

A

ALT

B

AST

C

Alkaline phosphatase

D

Acid phosphatase

Question 97

Creatinine estimation is done by :

A

Berthelot method

B

Caraway method

C

BCG method

D

Jaffes method

Question 98

Acetone is formed in the body as a secondary product from acetoacetic acid by loss of :

A

Oxygen

B

Carbon dioxide

C

Water

D

Carbon monoxide

Question 99

Albustix is a paper strip impregnated with the indicator :

A

Bromocresol green

B

Bromothymol blue

C

Bromocresol purple

D

Tetrabromophenol blue

Question 100

On which principle does Photo electric colorimeter work?

A

Beer’s Law

B

Lambert’s Law

C

Both (A) and (B)

D

None

114/2022 - Laboratory Technician/ Assistant Gr II - Animal Husbandry