EASY PSC | Kerala PSC 004/2024 - Laboratory Attender Answer Key

Question 1

Bilirubinuria is not seen in :

A

Dubin Johnson Syndrome

B

Obstructive jaundice

C

Haemolytic jaundice

D

Hepatocellular jaundice

Question 2

Name the condition where polymorphs are predominant in CSF :

A

Tuberculosis meningitis

B

Bacterial meningitis

C

Viral meningitis

D

Cryptococcal meningitis

Question 3

Colour of urine in alkaptonuria is :

A

Milky

B

Yellow

C

Red

D

Brownish black

Question 4

Which of the following is a carcinogen?

A

O – Toluidine

B

Naphthylamine

C

Nitrosamines

D

All of the above

Question 5

Pick out the odd one from the following :

A

LMS

B

CAP

C

NABH

D

NABL

Question 6

Occult blood in stool is positive in :

A

Carcinoma of GIT

B

Hookworm infection

C

Peptic ulcer

D

All of the above

Question 7

The instrument used to measure sodium and potassium in serum sample :

A

Flame photometer

B

Spectro photometer

C

Colorimeter

D

Fluorimeter

Question 8

Urine crystal resembling fern-leaf shape :

A

Calcium sulphate

B

Triple phosphate

C

Cystine crystal

D

Calcium carbonate

Question 9

Ion - Exchange resins are used to prepare :

A

Demineralised water

B

Distilled water

C

Buffered water

D

None of the above

Question 10

Which test detects ketone bodies in urine?

A

Schlesinger's test

B

Hays test

C

Toluene Sulfonic acid test

D

Legal’s test

Question 11

Find out the incorrect statement regarding electrical hazard :

A

The electrical equipment must be properly grounded

B

Lab personnel should know the location of fuse box/circuit breakers

C

In case of electric fire, use water to extinguish the fire

D

Do not attach a two-or three-way outlet to a single outlet

Question 12

Name the urine preservative which causes precipitation of crystals when used in large amounts :

A

Boric acid

B

Thymol

C

Formalin

D

Toluene

Question 13

Which is an example for kinetic assay?

A

Total protein - Biuret method

B

Serum albumin – BCG method

C

Estimation of SGPT

D

Urea – Berthelot method

Question 14

Curschmann’s spirals are seen in :

A

Ascitic fluid

B

Sputum

C

Stool

D

Urine

Question 15

Icto test is a tablet test to detect __________ in urine.

A

Bilirubin

B

Bile salt

C

Urobilinogen

D

Ketone body

Question 16

Pick out the wrong statement :

A

Semen has a grey opalescent appearance

B

Semen sample should be collected after a minimum of 3-5 days of sexual abstinence.

C

If condom is used to collect the sample it must be washed well and dried

D

Liquefaction time of semen is 90 minutes

Question 17

The preferred sample for testing hcG in urine is :

A

Morning sample

B

24-hour sample

C

Random sample

D

Afternoon sample

Question 18

Find out the incorrect statement regarding 24-hour urine sample :

A

A suitable preservative should be added to the collection container

B

Collect the first morning urine sample in the container and note the time

C

Collect all urine passed during the rest of the day and night in the container

D

Morning urine sample of the next day is also collected in the container

Question 19

Black tarry stool is seen in :

A

Obstructive jaundice

B

Excessive fat intake

C

Barium meal x-ray

D

Bleeding from upper GIT

Question 20

Which enzyme is measured in semen to evaluate the secretory function of prostate?

A

Acrosin

B

Acid phosphatase

C

Hyaluronidase

D

Beta galactosidase

Question 21

Which statement is true in the case of post hepatic jaundice?

A

Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubins are increased

B

Only unconjugated bilirubin is increased

C

Only conjugated bilirubin is increased

D

Alkaline phosphatase is increased

Question 22

The enzyme involved in Liver Function Test :

A

Enolase

B

Hexokinase

C

Alkaline phosphatase

D

Uricase

Question 23

Normal range of SGOT in blood is :

A

10 – 50 IU/L

B

5 – 30 IU/L

C

5 – 45 IU/L

D

15 – 65 IU/L

Question 24

Malloy – Evelyn method is used for detecting :

A

Bilirubin

B

ALT

C

AST

D

Cholesterol

Question 25

Which among the following lipoprotein has the lowest density?

A

VLDL

B

Chylomicrons

C

LDL

D

HDL

Question 26

Which among the following is not a cardiac marker?

A

Troponin I

B

CK MB

C

AST

D

ALT

Question 27

Blood calcium level is increased in :

A

Rickets

B

Hypoparathyroidism

C

Bone tumor

D

Renal failure

Question 28

The micromineral among the following is :

A

Potassium

B

Magnesium

C

Sodium

D

Zinc

Question 29

Which of the following is used to detect prostatic carcinoma?

A

Acid phosphatase

B

Alkaline phosphatase

C

Alanine aminotransferase

D

Aspartate aminotransferase

Question 30

The quality in a clinical laboratory is not influenced by :

A

Staff competency

B

Equipment calibration

C

Chemical storage

D

None of the above

Question 31

IV solutions can be sterilized by :

A

Autoclave

B

Membrane filter

C

Hot air oven

D

Chemical sterilization

Question 32

Select incorrect statement from the following :

A

Depyrogenation is done by Hot air oven

B

Pasteurization kills pathogens in the milk

C

Inoculating wire is sterilized by red heat method

D

Antibiotic solutions are sterilized by Autoclave

Question 33

Which is not a moist heat sterilization method?

A

Hot air oven

B

Autoclave

C

Tyndallization

D

Inspissation

Question 34

Who is the father of Modern Bacteriology?

A

Louis Pasteur

B

Robert Koch

C

Alexander Fleming

D

Leeuwenhoek

Question 35

In a bacterial cell, infoldings of plasma membrane is called :

A

Cytoplasm

B

Ribosome

C

Mesosome

D

Mitochondria

Question 36

Which of the following is a spirochaete?

A

Leptospira

B

Staphylococcus

C

Spirillum minus

D

Streptococcus

Question 37

Increase in HbA1c level indicates :

A

Decreased risk of diabetes

B

Diabetes under control

C

Diabetes not under control

D

Not related with diabetes

Question 38

The most routine and specific test employed for blood glucose estimation:

A

Benedict’s test

B

GOD - POD method

C

Folin Wu Method

D

Ortho toluidine method

Question 39

Which is not a Renal function test?

A

C-peptide

B

Uric acid

C

Cystatin C

D

Creatinine

Question 40

Which is the end product of Purine metabolism?

A

Urea

B

Creatinine

C

Uric acid

D

Micro albumin

Question 41

Light emission reaction is employed in which assay :

A

RIA

B

HPLC

C

ELISA

D

CLIA

Question 42

A solid medium which contains inhibiting substances that suppress the growth of unwanted bacteria and enables the growth of required bacteria to form colonies is called as a :

A

Enrichment media

B

Selective media

C

Enriched media

D

Differential media

Question 43

The transport media used for Gonococci is :

A

Hiss Serum Sugar media

B

Tetrathionate broth

C

Selenite F broth

D

Stuart's medium

Question 44

In bacterial growth curve, the phase in which the cell division comes to half due to depletion of nutrients and accumulation of toxic substances is :

A

Log phase

B

Phase of decline

C

Lag phase

D

Stationary phase

Question 45

The routine laboratory test which is done to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococci is :

A

Catalase test

B

Coagulase test

C

Oxidase test

D

Urease test

Question 46

Kovac’s reagent used in Indole test contains the following ingredients :
(i) Paradimethyl amino benzaldehyde
(ii) Con. HCL
(iii) Amyl alcohol
(iv) Methyl red

A

only (i) and (ii)

B

only (i) and (iii)

C

only (i), (ii) and (iii)

D

only (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 47

A competitive binding assay in which fixed amounts of antibody and radiolabelled antigen react in the presence of unlabelled antigen is :

A

ELISA

B

RIA

C

Complement fixation test

D

Immunofluorescence test

Question 48

VDRL test for Syphillis is an example of :

A

Slide flocculation test

B

Tube flocculation test

C

Ring test

D

Immunodiffusion technique

Question 49

The only maternal immunoglobulin that is normally transported across the placenta and provides natural immunity to newborn is :

A

IgA

B

IgM

C

IgG

D

IgD

Question 50

The bacterial colonies which shows ‘Medusa head’ appearance on agar plates and ‘Inverted fir tree’ appearance in gelatin stab culture :

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

B

Bacillus anthracis

C

Pneumococci

D

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 51

The staining method used to demonstrate metachromatic granules in bacteria :
(i) Albert’s staining
(ii) Ponder’s staining
(iii) Neisser’s staining
(iv) Fontana’s staining

A

only (i)

B

only (i) and (ii)

C

only (iv)

D

only (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 52

A semi solid media used to test the ability of bacteria to ferment mannitol and to identify whether the bacteria is motile or non-motile is :

A

Loefflers’s serum slope

B

Casteneda’s medium

C

Mannitol motility medium

D

Robertson’s cooked meat medium

Question 53

The causative agent of Weil’s disease :

A

Treponema

B

Borrelia

C

Leptospira

D

Mycoplasma

Question 54

The inclusion bodies detected in the impression smears of brain of infected animal in Rabies Infection is :

A

Eosinophillic granules

B

Negri bodies

C

Guarnieri bodies

D

Metachromatic granules

Question 55

An oval shaped, colourless egg containing a segmented ovum with blastomeres surrounded by a transparent shell membrane are the characteristic features of the egg of :

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

B

Ancylostoma duodenale

C

Trichuris trichiura

D

Taenia saginata

Question 56

A cellphane swab used to collect the eggs of Enterobius vermicularis from the perianal skin is :

A

Saline swab

B

Cotton swab

C

NIH swab

D

Sterile swab

Question 57

The different forms of Plasmodium vivax detected in the peripheral blood of human being is :
(i) Trophozoites
(ii) Schizonts
(iii) Gametocytes
(iv) Ring form

A

only (i) and (ii)

B

only (i) and (iv)

C

only (i) and (iii)

D

only (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 58

The quick method of staining of malarial parasite in thick films without fixation is :

A

eishman’s stain

B

Field’s stain

C

JSB stain

D

Giemsa stain

Question 59

The appearance of nocturnally periodic Microfilariae in peripheral blood in the day time can be induced by :

A

Hetrazan Provocative test

B

Concentration method

C

Intradermal test

D

Oral test

Question 60

The following statements are true regarding the features of the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica :
(i) Quadrinucleated
(ii) Thermal death point is 50ºC
(iii) Glycogen mass stains brown with Iodine
(iv) Chromatoid bodies are seen as refractile in saline preparations

A

only (i) and (ii)

B

only (i), (ii) and (iii)

C

only (i), (iii) and (iv)

D

All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Question 61

The process which involves the grinding of metal from the knife edge using abrasive substances to remove all nicks from the knife making it sharp and straight is called :

A

Sharpening

B

Polishing

C

Honing

D

Stropping

Question 62

The process of polishing an already fairly sharp edge of the microtome knife is called :

A

Honing

B

Sharpening

C

Polishing

D

Stropping

Question 63

In Rotary Microtome, which of the following is correct?

A

Knife is moving and tissue block is fixed

B

Knife is fixed and tissue block is moving

C

Used for cutting frozen sections

D

Biconcave knife is used in it

Question 64

In person having XY chromosome, the number of barrbody is :

A

One

B

Greater than one

C

Zero

D

None of these

Question 65

In papanicolaou stain the counter stain used is :

A

Haemataxylin

B

Methylene blue

C

Eosin

D

OG-6

Question 66

_________ connects muscles to the bone.

A

Cartilage

B

Tendons

C

Ligaments

D

Tissues of fat

Question 67

Sutures are :

A

Synarthrosis joints

B

Amphiarthrosis joints

C

Diaarthrosis joints

D

None of these

Question 68

Cavities of brain are called :

A

Mediastinum

B

Vasa recta

C

Sinus

D

Ventricles

Question 69

Breathing rate in humans are controlled by :

A

Thalamus

B

Cerebellum

C

Medulla Oblongata

D

Lungs

Question 70

Kupffer cells are present in :

A

Liver

B

Brain

C

Pancreas

D

Lungs

Question 71

Class A glasswares used in a Laboratory are made of :

A

Teflon glass

B

Soda Lime glass

C

Borosilicate glass

D

None of these

Question 72

Flame photometer is used for the detection of :

A

Drugs

B

Alkali metals

C

Functional groups

D

Chemical structure

Question 73

Class A type fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving ____________ as fuel source.

A

Combustible metals

B

Electrical Equipments

C

Flamable liquids

D

Ordinary combustible materials

Question 74

Fluid part of coagulated blood is called :

A

Serum

B

Plasma

C

Formed Elements

D

None of these

Question 75

The mechanism of action of anticoagulant in light grey coloured vaccutainer tube is :

A

Inhibit glycolysis

B

Chelates calcium ions

C

Both A) and B)

D

Prevent microbial growth

Question 76

Prolonged application of tourniquet causes elevation of :

A

Potassium

B

Protein

C

Glucose

D

All the above

Question 77

Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies is :

A

EDTA

B

Trisodium citrate

C

Heparin

D

Double oxalate

Question 78

Which blood cell produces antibodies?

A

Neutrophils

B

T lymphocytes

C

B lymphocyte

D

Basophils

Question 79

The area of a square of RBC counting area of an Improved Neubauer counting chamber is :

A

1/200 mm²

B

1/100 mm²

C

1/400 mm²

D

1 mm²

Question 80

The granules of this blood cell contain heparin and histamine :

A

Basophil

B

Eosinophil

C

Neutrophil

D

Lymphocyte

Question 81

Haematocrit value and RBC count are needed to calculate :

A

MCH

B

MCHC

C

MCV

D

None of these

Question 82

Microcytes and macrocytes in the same blood smear is called

A

Anisocytosis

B

Poikilocytosis

C

Erythrocytosis

D

Spherocytosis

Question 83

Erythrocytopaenia can be seen in all of the following conditions except :

A

anaemia

B

bone marrow failure

C

leukaemia

D

dehydration

Question 84

Which among the following is a platelet diluting fluid?

A

Dunger’s fluid

B

1% ammonium oxalate

C

Hayem’s fluid

D

Tuerk’s fluid

Question 85

Stain used for reticulocyte count is :

A

Wright strain

B

Leishman’s stain

C

Brillian Cresyl Blue

D

MGG Stain

Question 86

pH of Drabkin’s solution is:

A

4.5 – 6

B

7.0 – 7.4

C

8 – 9.4

D

9 – 10.5

Question 87

Following are all Romanowsky’s stain except :

A

Giemsa stain

B

Leishman’s stain

C

Jenner’s stain

D

Perl’s stain

Question 88

Which is the internationally recommended method for haemoglobin estimation?

A

Acid haematin method

B

Oxy haemoglobin method

C

Alkali haematin method

D

Cyan meth haemoglobin method

Question 89

ESR is elevated in following diseases except :

A

osteo arthritis

B

rheumatic fever

C

rheumatoid arthritis

D

pyogenic infection

Question 90

Which tube is used for the determination of macro hematocrit?

A

Westergren’s tube

B

Wintrobe’s tube

C

Sahli’s tube

D

Capillary tube

Question 91

INR (International normalized ratio) is a calculation based on the result of

A

Prothrombin time

B

Bleeding time

C

Clotting time

D

Activated partial thromboplastin time

Question 92

Anti haemophilic factor is :

A

coagulation factor V

B

coagulation factor III

C

coagulation factor VIII

D

coagulation factor IX

Question 93

Anticoagulant of choice for Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is :

A

heparin

B

EDTA

C

potassium oxalate

D

3.8% trisodium citrate

Question 94

A person can receive blood only from a donor of his/her blood group if the blood group of the person is :

A

B

C

B

D

O

Question 95

Bombay blood group individuals may have the following antibodies except :

A

Anti. a

B

Anti. b

C

Anti. h

D

Anti. o

Question 96

Colouring agent of Anti B anti serum is :

A

Methylene blue

B

Acriflavin

C

Pink

D

No colouring agent

Question 97

'A’ blood group of father and ‘B’ blood group of mother could have children with blood group :

A

A, O

B

A, B, O

C

A, AB, B, O

D

A, AB

Question 98

For patients having thrombocytopenia which blood component is transfused?

A

Platelet rich plasma

B

Whole blood

C

Washed red cells

D

Cryoprecipitate

Question 99

Which is not a phase of cross matching?

A

Saline phase

B

Globulin phase

C

Albumin phase

D

Anti globulin phase

Question 100

In blood bank which colour coded label is used to identify B blood group blood bag?

A

Red

B

Pink

C

Blue

D

White