Auxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade

Question 1

Health is viewed as a dynamic equilibrium between man and his environment in

A

Biomedical Concept

B

Ecological Concept

C

Psychosocial Concept

D

Holistic Concept

Question 2

The efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful life style is

A

Primordial Prevention

B

Primary Prevention

C

Secondary Prevention

D

Tertiary Prevention

Question 3

Mantoux test is used to determine the following disease

A

Diphtheria

B

Leprosy

C

Tuberculosis

D

Typhoid

Question 4

Rice water appearance of stool is seen in

A

Cholera

B

Amoebiasis

C

Giardiasis

D

Typhoid

Question 5

The fever ascends in a stepladder fashion is seen in

A

Tuberculosis

B

Meningitis

C

Malaria

D

Typhoid

Question 6

An eligible couple refers to a currently married couple wherein the wife is in the reproductive age, which generally assumed to lie between the age of

A

18 and 25

B

18 and 45

C

15 and 25

D

15 and 45

Question 7

The following are the characteristics of a community, except

A

The community is not a contagious geographic area

B

It is composed of people living together

C

People cooperate to satisfy their basic needs

D

There are common organizations in the community

Question 8

The process that can help people understand better and deal with their problems and communicate better with those with whom they are emotionally involved is

A

Education

B

Motivation

C

Persuasion

D

Counselling

Question 9

The Child Marriage Restraint Act in India is an example of

A

Regulatory approach

B

Service approach

C

Health education approach

D

Primary healthcare approach

Question 10

The degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by receiver

A

Reinforcement

B

Credibility

C

Comprehension

D

Motivation

Question 11

Koplik's spots are typical feature of

A

Chicken pox

B

Herpes zoster

C

Small pox

D

Measles

Question 12

An Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) for a population of

A

400

B

600

C

800

D

1000

Question 13

The policy reaffirms the commitment of the government towards target-free approach in administering family planning services

A

National health policy

B

National population policy

C

National nutrition policy

D

National policy for children

Question 14

World Population Day is observed every year on

A

11th July

B

28th July

C

5th June

D

14th June

Question 15

A sub-centre covers the population of

A

2000-5000

B

3000-5000

C

10000-20000

D

20000-30000

Question 16

The causative organism of mumps is

A

Paramyxovirus

B

Variola Virus

C

Varicella-Zoster Virus

D

Arbovirus

Question 17

For effective group discussion, the group should consist of the following number of members

A

2-5

B

6-12

C

10-20

D

15-25

Question 18

Vitamin D deficiency causes:

A

Rickets

B

Night blindness

C

Beriberi

D

Pellagra

Question 19

Following are larval control measures except:

A

DDT

B

Paris green

C

Gambusia fish

D

Intermittent irrigation

Question 20

Mosquitoes that breed in dirty water collection are:

A

Anopheles

B

Culex

C

Aedes

D

Mansonia

Question 21

Richest source of Vitamin C is:

A

Carrot

B

Milk

C

Amla

D

Green leafy vegetables

Question 22

More frequent form of protein energy malnutrition in India:

A

Anemia

B

Xerophthalmia

C

Marasmus

D

Option A & C

Question 23

Characteristic of a mentally healthy person includes:

A

Feels satisfied with himself

B

Well adjusted

C

Has good self control

D

All of the above

Question 24

Which among the following is the cause of maladjustment?

A

Frustration

B

Tension

C

Poverty

D

All of the above

Question 25

Health problems of elderly persons include:

A

Failure of special senses

B

Asthma

C

Option A & B

D

None

Question 26

Sanitary latrines can decrease incidence of all except:

A

Poliomyelitis

B

Mumps

C

Diarrhoea

D

Cholera

Question 27

Community participation includes involvement of a community in:

A

Disinfection of a well

B

Construction of a small scale soak pit

C

Safe disposal of excreta and animal waste

D

All of the above

Question 28

Safe water criteria include:

A

Free from pathogens

B

Free from colour

C

Free from odour

D

All of the above

Question 29

All of the following are methods of sewage disposal except:

A

Composting

B

Land treatment

C

Oxidation ponds

D

River outfall

Question 30

Science of health and its maintenance is:

A

Sanitation

B

Hygiene

C

Asepsis

D

None

Question 31

Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of:

A

E.coli

B

Streptococcus

C

Staphylococcus

D

Option B & C

Question 32

Following are common problems of mouth except:

A

Gingivitis

B

Halitosis

C

Periodontal disease

D

Acne

Question 33

Aedes aegypti transmits the following disease except:

A

Japanese encephalitis

B

Yellow fever

C

Malaria

D

Dengue fever

Question 34

Micronutrients are:

A

Proteins

B

Carbohydrates

C

Vitamins

D

Fats

Question 35

Modifiable risk factors in Coronary artery disease are all except:

A

Age

B

Hypertension

C

Obesity

D

Smoking

Question 36

Emergency care or treatment given to an ill or injured person before regular medical aid:

A

Primary prevention

B

Rehabilitation

C

Immunization

D

First aid

Question 37

Primary prevention of Hypertension includes:

A

Weight reduction

B

Exercise promotion

C

Reduction of salt intake

D

All of the above

Question 38

Drugs which cause expulsion of gas from the stomach and intestine:

A

Cathartics

B

Emetics

C

Carminatives

D

Antiemetics

Question 39

Following is not a risk factor for development of diabetes mellitus:

A

High intake of vitamin-A

B

Excessive intake of fat

C

Excessive intake of alcohol

D

Excessive intake of carbohydrates

Question 40

Which of the following should be done to avoid stroke?

A

Regular exercise

B

Reduce the amount of fat in diet

C

Low salt diet

D

All of the above

Question 41

Which among the following sequence of events is true?

A

Disease – Impairment – Disability – Handicap

B

Impairment – Disability – Handicap – Disease

C

Disability – Handicap – Disease – Impairment

D

Handicap – Disease – Impairment – Disability

Question 42

TB Multidrug regimen is given to:

A

Prevent side effects

B

Prevent resistance

C

Prevent pneumonia

D

All of the above

Question 43

The best criteria for TB diagnosis is:

A

Chest pain

B

Coughing

C

Sputum positive

D

Breathlessness

Question 44

The normal body temperature for an adult is:

A

98.6 degree F

B

98.6 degree C

C

95.8 degree F

D

95.8 degree C

Question 45

Definition of health given by WHO includes the following dimentions except:

A

Physical

B

Mental

C

Social

D

Emotional

Question 46

Immunization is:

A

Secondary prevention

B

Primary prevention

C

Tertiary prevention

D

All of the above

Question 47

Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Tetanus

B

Anti rabies vaccine

C

Rubella

D

Hepatitis

Question 48

At primary health centre level, vaccines are stored in:

A

Deep freezer

B

Cold box

C

Ice lined refrigerator

D

Cold room

Question 49

Waste sharps should be disposed in:

A

Black bag

B

White bag

C

Red bag

D

Yellow bag

Question 50

The entry and development of an infectious agent in the body of man is:

A

Contamination

B

Disease

C

Infestation

D

Epidemic

Question 51

Immunity which an individual develops as a result of infection or by immunization is:

A

Passive immunity

B

Active immunity

C

Herd immunity

D

All of the above

Question 52

Good sample of bleaching powder contains ________ per cent of "available chlorine"

A

38%

B

40%

C

33%

D

36%

Question 53

Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is:

A

Feco oral route

B

Sexual transmission

C

Option A & B

D

None

Question 54

The first step in the control of an infectious disease in a community is:

A

Isolation

B

Surveillance

C

Disinfection

D

Early diagnosis

Question 55

Population covered by a Subcenter is:

A

7000-9000

B

3000-5000

C

1000-2000

D

6000-7000

Question 56

Anti-malaria month is observed every year in the month of:

A

July

B

April

C

June

D

May

Question 57

Knowledge updation in health care system:

A

Improves self development of staff

B

Understand the scope of career advancement

C

Improves ability in writing reports

D

All of the above

Question 58

Under National program for prevention of nutritional blindness, children at nine months is given Vitamin A in the dose of:

A

1 Lakh IU

B

1.5 Lakh IU

C

2 Lakh IU

D

3 Lakh IU

Question 59

Records which are kept at Primary health centre:

A

Maternal and child health records

B

Eligible couple records

C

Birth and death registers

D

All of the above

Question 60

Pulse polio immunization is administration of OPV to:

A

All children between 0-5 years of age

B

All children between the age group of 0-1 years

C

All children in the age group of 0-2 years

D

All children between 0-3 years of age

Question 61

The alternate term for growth chart:

A

Nutritional chart

B

Weight chart

C

Height chart

D

Road to health chart

Question 62

The common habit disorder where the child grinds the teeth

A

Bruxism

B

Stuttering

C

Tics

D

Trichotillomania

Question 63

The characteristic play of school age children:

A

Parallel play

B

Cooperative play

C

Associative play

D

Solitary play

Question 64

The body mass index in children is calculated as:

A

Weight(g)/[Height(m)]^2

B

Weight(kg)/[Height(m)]^2

C

Weight(g)/[Height(cm)]2

D

Weight(kg)/[Height(cm)]

Question 65

The thermodynamic label put on vaccine vial indicating the potency of vaccine is termed as:

A

VVM

B

VNM

C

VVV

D

VVN

Question 66

Vitamin A is otherwise known as:

A

Retinol

B

Biotin

C

Cholecalciferol

D

Niacin

Question 67

In children with diarrhoeal diseases, the estimated fluid loss in severe dehydration:

A

>50ml/kg

B

50-100ml/kg

C

75ml/kg

D

>100ml/kg

Question 68

The national maternity benefit scheme, modified in April 2005 as a new scheme is known as

A

JSY

B

RBSK

C

NSSK

D

JSSK

Question 69

IMNCI stands for

A

Integrated Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness

B

Intensive Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness

C

Inpatient Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness

D

Internal Management of Neonatal & Childhood Illness

Question 70

The first legally binding international instrument to incorporate civil, cultural, economic, political and social rights for children:

A

UNCRC

B

UNICEF

C

UNESCO

D

UN Security Council

Question 71

The Girl child week is observed every year throughout India during:

A

1st-7th August

B

1st-7th April

C

18th-24th September

D

15th-21st November

Question 72

The route of administration of BCG vaccine is:

A

Intramuscular

B

Oral

C

Intradermal

D

Subcutaneous

Question 73

In physiology of lactation, milk secretion reflex is known as:

A

Oxytocin reflex

B

Prolactin reflex

C

Rooting reflex

D

Sucking reflex

Question 74

The cell produced by fertilization is

A

Gamete

B

Embryo

C

Foetus

D

Zygote

Question 75

Common type of female pelvis is

A

Android

B

Gynecoid

C

Anthropoid

D

Platypelloid

Question 76

Placenta produces ________

A

Prolactin

B

Oxytocin

C

FSH

D

Estrogen & Progesterone

Question 77

How much weight gain is normal during pregnancy?

A

8 kg

B

10 kg

C

12 kg

D

14 kg

Question 78

Commonest cause of non-engagement at term in primi is

A

CPD

B

Hydramnios

C

Brow presentation

D

Breech

Question 79

Inflammation of ovary is termed as

A

Oophoritis

B

Hydrocele

C

Salpingitis

D

Oophorectomy

Question 80

Bandl's ring is also called

A

Constriction ring

B

Schroeder's ring

C

Retraction ring

D

Cervical dystocia

Question 81

The perineal tear should be repaired

A

24 hrs. Later

B

48 hrs. later

C

36 hrs. Later

D

immediately

Question 82

What is the cause of postpartum depression?

A

Lack of Sleep

B

Vitamin deficiencies

C

Social stress

D

An extreme drop in hormone level

Question 83

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Bleeding disorders

B

Abruptio placenta

C

Placenta previa

D

Atonic uterus

Question 84

Majority of abortions take place between

A

8-12 wks.

B

12-16 wks.

C

16-20 wks.

D

Later than 20 weeks

Question 85

The acronym ADHD stands for

A

Attention directed Hyperactivity disorder

B

Attitude Dependent Hyperactivity Disorder

C

Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder

D

Attention directing hypothalamic density.

Question 86

The most common indication for Hysterectomy

A

Uterine leiomyomata

B

DUB

C

Uterine prolapse

D

Adenomyosis

Question 87

Mammography should be done annually in women of

A

50 yrs. and above

B

60 yrs. and above

C

40 yrs. and above

D

30 yrs. and above

Question 88

APGAR assessment is interpreted by means of

A

Scoring

B

Comparing with a standard table

C

Using a scale of wellness

D

Consultation with a family psychologist

Question 89

Domestic violence involves

A

Physical violence only

B

Mental violence only

C

Violence inside the house

D

All of the above

Question 90

A tumor associated with HIV infected men

A

prostate carcinoma

B

liver cell carcinoma

C

osteosarcoma

D

Kaposi's sarcoma

Question 91

Which is the most Common STI caused by bacteria?

A

Gonorrhoea

B

Syphilis

C

Chlamydia

D

Genital warts

Question 92

Women who are trying to conceive should boost their intake of

A

Nickel

B

Lycopene

C

Potassium

D

Folic acid

Question 93

Which is the most populous country in the world?

A

India

B

United States

C

China

D

Russia

Question 94

Number of antenatal visit should be at least

A

3

B

4

C

5

D

6

Question 95

When did Janani Suraksha Yojana launched?

A

2000

B

2005

C

2010

D

2015

Question 96

A Creamy substance found on skin of newborn after birth

A

Meconium

B

Wharton's jelly

C

Vernix Caseosa

D

Lanugo

Question 97

Premature separation of placenta from uterus

A

placenta previa

B

habitual abortion

C

placental abruption

D

vesicular mole

Question 98

Which of the following is thought to be a cause of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

underlying infection

B

overeating

C

high levels of circulating HCG

D

psychological issues

Question 99

Normal weight of uterus

A

20 gm

B

40 gm

C

60 gm

D

80 gm

Question 100

Which is the symptom of placenta previa?

A

bright red painless vaginal bleeding

B

quickening

C

nausea and vomiting

D

dizziness

047/2022 - Auxiliary Nurse Midwife & Junior Public Health Nurse Grade II