EASY PSC | 087/2021 - Fisheries Extension Officer Answer Key

Question 1

North west coast of India accounts for almost 90% of the total ___________ landings in India

A

Demersal finfish

B

Elasmobranch

C

Non-penaeid prawn

D

Lobster

Question 2

“Choodavalai” with cod mesh size of 8 mm operated from plank built boats fitted with outboard engines along Kerala and Karnataka coasts since 1985, is a type of

A

Gill net

B

Ring seine

C

Mini trawl

D

Cast net

Question 3

Articles __________ of the UNCLOS prescribe the area extending up to 200 nautical miles ( _______ kms) off the coast as Exclusive Economic Zone.

A

50-65; 325

B

55-65; 350

C

55-75; 370

D

65-75; 360

Question 4

Fishery of __________ are characterised by high interannual fluctuations due to fishing or natural factors.

A

Small pelagics

B

Large pelagics

C

Demersal fishes

D

Crustaceans

Question 5

Which one of the following is a carrageenan yielding seaweed ?

A

Gracilaria corticata

B

Caulerpa racemosa

C

Gelidiella acerosa

D

Kappaphycus alvarezi

Question 6

__________ is obtained at a level of fishing effort that is lower than that required to maximize yield in weight.

A

Maximum Economic Yield

B

Maximum Sustainable Yield

C

Economic Break-even Point

D

Maximum Fishing Employment

Question 7

Fishery of __________ is a role model for ecosystem based fisheries management and is considered as the world’s best managed fishery.

A

Thunnus albacares

B

Thunnus maccoyii

C

Clupea harengus of north east Atlantic

D

Gadus chalcogrammus

Question 8

Advantages of implementation of minimum legal size include

A

Prevention of growth overfishing

B

Promotion of ethical and responsible fisheries

C

Both (A) and (B)

D

None of the above

Question 9

Which of the following scheme of the Government of India has the target of increasing fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 ?

A

Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund

B

Matsya Samridhi

C

Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana

D

Blue Revolution

Question 10

___________ is an oceanographic payload carried by IRS P4 capable of retrieving chlorophyll intensity, used for the identification of Potential Fishing Zones.

A

OCM

B

MSMR

C

LISS

D

WiFS

Question 11

Which among the following is Froude’s number ?

A

Ratio between the aft perpendicular and forward perpendicular of a fishing vessel

B

Ratio between the water line and load water line of a fishing vessel

C

Ratio between the speed in knots and the square root of the length of water line in feet of a fishing vessel

D

Ratio between the displacement tonnage and dead weight tonnage of a fishing vessel

Question 12

Which among the following groups are correct with regard to the traditional use of ‘Catamaran’ as an indigenous fishing vessel ?

A

Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa

B

Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

C

Maharashtra, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa

D

Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu

Question 13

During the first stage of the mechanization of fishing boats in India, a few indigenous fishing boats were found to be suitable for mechanization with a little modification. They were successfully mechanized under the guidance of FAO experts. Which among the following was found not suitable for mechanization ?

A

Kakinada Navas of Andhra Pradesh

B

Rampani Boats of Karnataka

C

Tuticorin Boats of Tamil Nadu

D

Batchari Boats of West Bengal

Question 14

The lines representing the sections of ships or the boundaries of waterplanes are in general fair curves which cannot be represented by a single mathematical equation. To apply various arithmetical methods, it is assumed that the curved boundaries consist of a series of parabolic curves. Which among the following methods is mainly used for specific calculations such as stability ?

A

Trapezoidal rule

B

Simpson’s rule

C

Tchebycheff’s rule

D

Midpoint rule

Question 15

The power available in the crank shaft of an engine after deducting the frictional loss in the working of an engine is known as

A

Shaft horse power

B

Effective horse power

C

Indicated horse power

D

Brake horse power

Question 16

The form is used to describe the shape of ship’s hull. Comparison of one ship’s form with another is made using a number of coefficients. The ratio between the actual volume of the underwater form to the volume of a block with length equal to the length between perpendiculars, breadth equal to the breadth of the vessel and depth equal to the draft of the vessel is known as

A

Mid ship section area coefficient

B

Block coefficient

C

Prismatic coefficient

D

Waterplane area coefficient

Question 17

Choose the odd one among the following otter boards

A

Suberkrub

B

Rectangular flat

C

Rectangular curved

D

V-form

Question 18

If 9000 m of a single yarn weigh 10g, which among the following is the correct designation of this yarn ?

A

10 Tex

B

10 Td

C

10 Nm

D

10 Ne

Question 19

The triangular piece of webbing used in a trawl to give a smooth catenary curve to the head rope of the trawl is known as

A

Overhang

B

Quarter

C

Flapper

D

Jib

Question 20

What is the correct cutting rate to make webbing with 100 meshes on the top and 40 meshes at the bottom and with 90 meshes depth, if the tailoring is done only on one side ?

A

1 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut

B

2 N or P cut : 4 Bar cut

C

1 T or M cut : 4 Bar cut

D

2 T or M cut : 4 Bar cut

Question 21

In the Redditch scale of hook numbering system the number designating the finest hook is

A

15

B

17

C

18

D

16

Question 22

In Navigation, fixing present position or anticipated future position from a previous position, using known directions and distances is known as

A

Piloting

B

Celestial Navigation

C

Radio Navigation

D

Dead Reckoning

Question 23

If a vessel engaged in day fishing hoist the signal flag ‘P’, what is the message conveyed ?

A

My net has come fast upon an obstruction

B

I am hauling net

C

Keep clear of me I am engaged in pair trawling

D

I am shooting net

Question 24

Which among the following is the International Code signal of distress ?

A

Alfa Romeo (AR)

B

November Charlie (NC)

C

Alfa Sierra (AS)

D

Charlie Quebec (CQ)

Question 25

The length of warp released in bottom otter trawling depends on the depth of the fishing ground and the nature of the sea bottom. The ratio of depth of the fishing ground and the warp released is known as

A

Aspect ratio

B

Scope ratio

C

Slip ratio

D

None of the above

Question 26

Fresh water fishes contain a high level of _____________ than that of in the marine fishes

A

Omega 3 fatty acids

B

Myosin

C

Tropomyosin

D

Omega 6 fatty acids

Question 27

The canning process in which the release of gases from fish tissue and inhibit enzymatic reactions is achieved by the process called

A

Double seaming

B

Sodium sulphate

C

Blanching

D

Pressure steaming

Question 28

The preservative value of smoking is characterized by the ____________ content present in the woods.

A

Phenolic

B

Resinous

C

Carbon dioxide

D

Acidic

Question 29

The transportation of frozen fish by air Cargo is done by using

A

Liquid nitrogen

B

Air blast freezing

C

Solid carbon dioxide

D

Brine freezing

Question 30

Sorbic acid is used as a preservative to protect the fish from

A

Bacterial spoilage

B

Glazing

C

Rancidity

D

Fungal spoilage

Question 31

The compound responsible for the foul odour due to spoilage of marine fish

A

Trimethylamine

B

Trimethylamine oxide

C

Ammonia

D

Pyridine

Question 32

Onset of rigor mortis the changes of the muscle texture is due to

A

ATP hydrolysis

B

Trimethylamine

C

Creatine phosphate

D

Autolysis

Question 33

Which amino acid is responsible for meaty flavour in scombroid fishes ?

A

Tryptophan

B

Histidine

C

Lysine

D

Leucine

Question 34

Isinglass has been prepared as a byproduct from

A

Fish scale

B

Fish skin

C

Air bladder

D

Fish Roe

Question 35

What is the ‘pit curing’ of fish ?

A

Wet salting

B

Steam drying

C

Freeze drying

D

Hot smoking

Question 36

Which of the following is not a descriptive test for quality assessment of raw fishes ?

A

Market test

B

Ranking method

C

Triangle test

D

Quality index method

Question 37

In TVB analysis, one of the following substance is considered as an excellent indicator for quality assessment of squids is

A

Trimethylamine

B

Ammonia

C

Dimethylamine

D

NADH

Question 38

The preventive measure is needed to be followed to reduce the effect of biotoxins and pathogens in live fish under HACCP

A

Avoid fishing in contaminated area

B

Ensure accuracy scale

C

Maintenance low-temperature

D

Candling

Question 39

The autolysis in post mortem changes can reduce by __________ which helps in the quality and storage life of fatty fishes.

A

Evisceration

B

Ice chilling

C

Filleting

D

Salting

Question 40

Among the following fishes, the maximum shell life is showed while it is stored in ice from temperate conditions

A

Sardine

B

Mackerel

C

Tilapia

D

Pacu

Question 41

Lakes that is rich in humic and organic substance are called

A

Eutrophic

B

Mesotrophic

C

Dystrophic

D

Oligotrophic

Question 42

Miscellaneous assemblage of organisms growing upon free surfaces of object, submerged in water is called as

A

Seston

B

Nekton

C

Neuston

D

Periphyton

Question 43

Frustules made of silica are characteristic of

A

Euglenoids

B

Diatoms

C

Desmids

D

Coccolithophores

Question 44

The phenomenon with High Nutrient and Low ChlorophyII (HNLC) is also known as

A

Edge effect

B

Water Paradox

C

Cascade effect

D

Antarctic Paradox

Question 45

The Redfield ratio, the C : N : P ratio in Indian ocean is

A

120 : 30 : 1

B

106 : 16 : 1

C

100 : 12 : 1

D

132 : 22 : 1

Question 46

As per the latest FAO data (FAO 2020) India’s contribution on World aquaculture fish production is about

A

8.5%

B

15%

C

2.5%

D

25%

Question 47

Which among the following statement is true ? Increase of temperature in the aquaculture pond causes i. Low oxygen solubility ii. High metabolic rate of cultured species iii. High oxygen solubility iv. High ammonia toxicity

A

ii

B

i and ii

C

i, ii and iii

D

i, ii and iv

Question 48

Ideal C/N ratio used in biofloc technology

A

1 : 5

B

15 : 1

C

5 : 1

D

1 : 15

Question 49

Which among the following is an inorganic extractive cultured in IMTA ?

A

Salmon

B

Blue mussels

C

Kelp

D

Sea cucumber

Question 50

Dolomite used for adjusting the pH/alkalinity in aquaculture pond is

A

CaCO3

B

MgCO3

C

CaMg(CO3)2

D

Na2CO3

Question 51

Water flow through the RAS in a hatchery is in the order of

A

Culture tank – UV chamber – Biofilter – Mechanical filter

B

Culture tank – Mechanical filter – UV chamber – Biofilter

C

Culture tank – Biofilter – UV chamber – Mechanical filter

D

Culture tank – Biofilter – Mechanical filter – UV chamber

Question 52

Predominant mineral present in the acid sulfate soils

A

Pyrite

B

Calcite

C

Magnetite

D

Hematite

Question 53

Black-lipped pearl oyster farming in India is at

A

Vizhinjam

B

Bengal

C

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

D

Lakshadweep Islands

Question 54

How many distinct zoeal stages are there in the larval development of Macrobrachiumrosenbergii ?

A

11

B

32

C

30

D

5

Question 55

Deficiency of which amino acid causes scoliosis/lordosis in fishes ?

A

Methionine

B

Valine

C

Tryptophan

D

Tyrosine

Question 56

Foam fractionator is used in the aquarium for the removal of

A

Organic compounds

B

Inorganic compounds

C

Ammonia

D

Dissolved inorganic compounds

Question 57

Which of the following ornamental fishes produces non-sticky eggs ?

A

Melon barbs

B

Banded gourami

C

Zebra fish

D

All

Question 58

Marine ornamental fish hatchery production developed in India for

A

Amphiprionpercula

B

Amphiprionsebae

C

Pomacentruspavo

D

All

Question 59

Which among the following is not belongs to Chlorophyceae ? i. Chlorella ii. Chaetocerous iii. Isochrysis iv. Dunaliela

A

i and ii

B

i and iv

C

ii and iii

D

None of the above

Question 60

Name the marine rotifer

A

Brachionusplicatilis

B

Brachionuscalyciflorus

C

Brachionusrubens

D

Daphnia magna

Question 61

Which among the following is the mode of action of probiotic in fishes ?

A

Competitive exclusion

B

Production of inhibitory substances

C

Competition for nutrients

D

All

Question 62

Fresh water white spot disease in fishes is caused by

A

WSSV

B

Ichthyophthiriusmultifilis

C

Oodinium

D

Ichthyobodonecator

Question 63

Tilapia Lake Virus (TiLV) belongs to the family

A

Orthomyxoviridae

B

Rhabdoviridae

C

Togaviridae

D

Alloherpesviridae

Question 64

The concept of human health and animal health are interdependent and bound to the health of the ecosystem in which they exist is known as

A

Disease triad

B

Eco health

C

One health

D

Sustainable health

Question 65

Which among the following statement is true about the monoclonal antibody ? i. Batch to batch variability ii. Expensive to produce iii. Recognize only one epitope of an antigen iv. Recognize multiple epitope of an antigen

A

i and iii

B

ii and iii

C

i and ii

D

All

Question 66

Which among the following is an antifungal compound used in aquaculture ?

A

Trifuralin

B

Crystal violet

C

Malachite green

D

All

Question 67

Most promising fish and shrimp immunostimulant isolated from the yeast cell wall

A

Chitin

B

Peptidoglycan

C

Laminaran

D

Glucans

Question 68

Preferred order of electron acceptors in bioremediation

A

Iron, Nitrate, Sulfate, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide

B

Oxygen, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate, Carbon dioxide

C

Carbon dioxide, Sulfate, Iron, Oxygen, Nitrate

D

Oxygen, Carbon dioxide, Nitrate, Iron, Sulfate

Question 69

Which among the following is not true about SPF animal ?

A

SPF status doesn’t refer their susceptibility to infection or disease

B

Developed through a rigorous quarantine and disease screening process

C

Result from a specific breeding programme designed to increase resistance

D

All

Question 70

Concentration of nitrite above 2 ppm in the culture tank can cause

A

New tank syndrome

B

Air bubble disease

C

Brown blood disease

D

Acidosis

Question 71

Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting exactly one head ?

A

0.25

B

0.5

C

0.75

D

0

Question 72

In which approach to probability the outcomes are equally likely to occur ?

A

Classical approach

B

Subjective approach

C

Relative frequency approach

D

Axiomatic approach

Question 73

The chance that a ship safely reach a port is 0.20. What is the probability that out of 3 ships expected, no ship would arrive safely ?

A

0.80

B

0.512

C

0

D

0.488

Question 74

Which among the following is true for a Poisson distribution ?

A

Mean = Variance

B

Mean > Variance

C

Mean < Variance

D

Mean = Standard deviation

Question 75

If the points in a scatter diagram show a downward trend from the left top to the right bottom, the correlation is

A

Positive

B

Negative

C

Zero

D

None of the above

Question 76

If correlation coefficient = 0.8, coefficient of determination is

A

80%

B

8%

C

0.8%

D

64%

Question 77

Sampling error is present in

A

Census survey

B

Sample survey

C

Both Census and Sample survey

D

Neither Sample nor Census survey

Question 78

What is the critical value for a two-tailed hypothesis test on a population mean when level of significance is 5% and the population standard deviation is known ?

A

2.58

B

2.33

C

1.96

D

1.645

Question 79

Large sample theory is applicable when the sample size is

A

More than 30

B

Less than 30

C

Equal to 30

D

Atleast 100

Question 80

The Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) utilizes

A

Z test

B

t-test

C

Chi-square test

D

F-test

Question 81

Fisheries extension is _______ type of education.

A

Informal

B

Formal

C

Non-formal

D

Unorganized

Question 82

Fisheries extension is working in harmony with the _______ of people.

A

Culture

B

Customs

C

Habits

D

Rituals

Question 83

The central element in learning situation is

A

Instructor

B

Teaching equipment

C

Learner

D

Subject matter

Question 84

A scientific representation of the original with model, specimen and painting is known as

A

Objects

B

Mock-ups

C

Translide

D

Diorama

Question 85

Which of the following statements is/are true about Audio Visual Aids ? i. AV aids clarify the idea being presented. ii. AV aids vitalize and make teaching more real. iii. AV aids will not change the attitude or point of view of the farmers.

A

Only i and ii

B

Only i and iii

C

Only ii and iii

D

All of the above (i, ii, iii)

Question 86

Among the extension teaching methods, to develop skill among the farmers ______ method is used.

A

Observation plots

B

Result demonstrations

C

Method demonstrations

D

National demonstrations

Question 87

An outline of activities arranged for the efficient execution of the entire programme is

A

Project

B

Calendar of work

C

Plan of work

D

Action plan

Question 88

In programme planning process the objectives of the programme are determined by

A

Villagers alone

B

Local leader alone

C

Villagers and local leaders

D

Villagers and extension staff

Question 89

__________ is a quick appraisal method.

A

Observation

B

Interview method

C

Questionnaire method

D

Participatory rural appraisal

Question 90

____________ is viewed as a holistic approach to move beyond traditional crop production emphasis to include all land based activities

A

Farmer-First (FF) Model

B

Broad Based Agricultural Extension

C

Farming Systems Research and Extension (FSRE)

D

Circular Model Transfer of Technology

Question 91

Which country stood at first in terms of fishery production ?

A

India

B

China

C

Japan

D

US

Question 92

When will people search harder to find substitutes for fish ?

A

When the price of fish is high

B

When the taste of fish is too bad

C

When the price of chicken is less

D

When the supply of fish is high

Question 93

Write the term to describe a practice in which indigenous knowledge of nature, originating with indigenous peoples, is used by others for profit, without authorization or compensation to the indigenous people themselves.

A

PSM

B

Embargo

C

Bio Piracy

D

Patents

Question 94

The agreement on the application of _________ sets out the basic rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards.

A

Fishing subsides

B

Sanitary and Phytosanitary measures

C

Bio Piracy

D

Production and Conservation

Question 95

Name the term that indicates the maximum catch that can be extracted from a fish or other population in the long term.

A

Maximum Production

B

Sustainable Production

C

Maximum Sustainable Yield

D

Blue Economy

Question 96

What is Pier ?

A

A raised structure in a body of water, typically supported by piles or pillars

B

A long, narrow structure that protects a coastline from the currents and tides

C

A platform to which ships are docked for loading and unloading

D

An enclosed area of water used for loading, unloading, building or repairing ships

Question 97

What is the subject matter discussed in Section 22 of the Coastal Aquaculture Authority Act, 2005 ?

A

Penalty

B

Power to remove difficulties

C

Protection of action taken in good faith

D

Power of Central Government to make rules

Question 98

What is the name of the project implemented by the Government of Kerala with a view to increase inland fish production, create new employment opportunities through development of inland and brackish water aquaculture and value addition of aquaculture products ?

A

Haritha Keralam

B

Matsya Samrudhi

C

Sea Ranching

D

Theeramythri

Question 99

What is a Small Scale Industrial Unit as per the definition revised in July 2020 in India ?

A

An enterprise having investment up to Rupees 25 lakhs

B

An enterprise having investment up to Rupees 5 crores

C

An enterprise having investment in plant and machinery or equipment which does not exceed Rs. 1 crore and turnover which does not exceed Rs. 10 crores

D

An enterprise having investment in plant and machinery or equipment which does not exceed Rs. 10 crores and turnover which does not exceed Rs. 50 crores

Question 100

What is the coastal length of Kerala ?

A

551.5 Kms

B

589.5 Kms

C

700 Kms

D

710 Kms

087/2021 - FISHERIES EXTENSION OFFICER - FISHERIES