FARM ASSISTANT GRADE II (AGRI)

Question 1

1. Number of micronutrients essential for plant growth as per essentiality criteria is

A

7

B

8

C

6

D

9

Question 2

2. A post emergence herbicide recommended for the selective killing of sedges and dicot weeds in transplanted rice is

A

Bispyribac sodium

B

Cyhalofop butyl + Penoxsulam

C

Fenoxaprop-p-ethyl

D

Ethoxy sulfuron

Question 3

3. Percentage of boron in Borax (Na2B4O7.10H2O) is

A

11%

B

15%

C

20%

D

7%

Question 4

Quantity of bispyribac sodium [Nominee gold 10 SC] needed per acre if recommendation is 0.03 kg ai/ha is

A

300 ml

B

200 ml

C

250 ml

D

120 ml

Question 5

5. An essential plant nutrient immobile in soil and mobile inside plants is

A

Potassium

B

Sulphur

C

Phosphorus

D

Calcium [cite: 7

Question 6

6. As per the classification of Central Soil Salinity Research Institute, Karnal an irrigation water with electrical conductivity _______ is suitable for irrigation.

A

<1.5 dS/m

B

<2.5 dS/m

C

<5 dS/m

D

<4 dS/m [cite: 8

Question 7

7. Kerala soils are said to be magnesium deficient if the soil test value is

A

<200 ppm

B

<120 ppm

C

<300 ppm

D

<250 ppm [cite: 9

Question 8

8. Number of Agro Ecological management units [AEMU] in Kerala as per National Bureau of Soil Survey and land use Planning.

A

15

B

20

C

13

D

23 [cite: 10

Question 9

9. Nano urea recommendation to crops as per IFFCO is

A

6 \'96 8 ml

B

5 \'96 10 ml

C

2 \'96 4 ml

D

5 \'96 7 ml [cite: 11

Question 10

10. What will be the depth of irrigation if IW/CPE ratio is 0.75 with a CPE of 6 mm ?

A

6.25 mm

B

4.5 mm

C

8.0 mm

D

5.75 mm [cite: 12

Question 11

11. Who first used the term nanotechnology and when ?

A

Rechard Feynman, 1959

B

Nario Taniguchi, 1974

C

Eric drexier, 1986

D

Sumio lijima, 1991 [cite: 13

Question 12

12. What is grapheme ?

A

a new material made from carbon nanotubes

B

thin lm made from fullerenes

C

a software tool made to measure and graphically represent nano particles

D

a one atom thick sheet of carbon [cite: 14

Question 13

13. multi Spectral Scanner (mSS) was on board on which satellite ?

A

IRS \'96 1A

B

NOAA \'96 18

C

SPOT \'96 1

D

landsat \'96 1 [cite: 15

Question 14

14. There are two Survey of India 1 : 50,000 toposheets with 15'\'d715' angular coverage, one from Jammu and another from Kerala. Which of the following statement is true ?

A

Both the toposheets will cover exactly same size of area

B

The toposheet from Jammu will cover a large area than that of the Kerala

C

The toposheet from Kerala will cover a large area than that of the Jammu

D

Projection will affect the size of area coverage [cite: 16

Question 15

15. Calculate the percentage pore space in a soil with a bulk density of 1.3 mg/m3 and particle density of 2.6 mg/m3.

A

45

B

48

C

50

D

52 [cite: 17

Question 16

16. In a soil plant system, water and nutrient rise due to capillary action. If suddenly the acceleration due to gravity is reduced to half, the capillary rise will be

A

double

B

Half

C

Remain same

D

Becomes zero [cite: 18

Question 17

17. SmP buffer is used in

A

lime requirement

B

Gypsum requirement

C

Phosphate potential

D

lime potential [cite: 19

Question 18

18. The coordination number of AI+3 ion in Phyllosilicate mineral is

A

Eight

B

Six

C

Three

D

One [cite: 20

Question 19

19. Rank the following moisture regimes below from driest to wettest

A

udic, aquic, aridic

B

aquic, udic, aridic

C

xeric, udic, aquic

D

udic, xeric, aquic [cite: 21

Question 20

20. What are the six master horizons in the order which you will nd them in the soil, from top to bottom ?

A

O, E, T, A, P, C

B

A, B, C, E, O, R

C

O, A, B, E, C, R

D

O, A, E, B, C, R [cite: 22

Question 21

21. Which among the following statements regarding IPm are correct ? i. management is initiated when the increasing population of a pest crosses ETl. ii. Insecticides are never used in IPm. iii. management is initiated as soon as the damage by a pest is observed. iv. IPm aims to keep the population of pests below EIl.

A

i and ii

B

ii and iii

C

iii and iv

D

i and iv [cite: 23

Question 22

22. Intra specic competition between parasitoids occurs in i. Super parasitism ii. multiple parasitism iii. Gregarious parasitism iv. Solitary parasitism

A

i only

B

ii only

C

both ii and iv

D

both i and ii [cite: 24

Question 23

23. Which among the following deleteriously affect pest management employing insecticides ? i. Insecticide resistance ii. Plant resistance iii. Pest resurgence iv. Pest replacement

A

i, ii and iii

B

ii, iii and iv

C

i, iii and iv

D

All of the above [cite: 25

Question 24

24. Act/Acts based on the provisions of which the entry of exotic pests to India is checked. i. The Insecticides Act, 1968 ii. The destructive Insects and Pests Act, 1914 iii. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

A

i only

B

ii only

C

iii only

D

Both i and iii [cite: 26

Question 25

25. Identify the neonicotinoid insecticides from among the following. i. Azadiractin ii. Imidacloprid iii. Flubendiamide iv. Thiamethoxam

A

Both i and ii

B

Both ii and iii

C

Both i and iv

D

Both ii and iv [cite: 27

Question 26

26. Read the following statements about insects and choose the option having all true statements. i. Nerve cord is ventral in position. ii. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes is mediated by malpighian tubules. iii. Heart is dorsal in position. iv. Haemolymph transport oxygen.

A

i, ii and iii

B

ii, iii and iv

C

i, ii and iv

D

All of the above [cite: 28

Question 27

27. Which of the following are used as rodenticides ? i. Zinc phosphide ii. Zinc phosphate iii. Warfarin iv. dimilin.

A

Both i and ii

B

Both ii and iii

C

Both i and iii

D

Both ii and iv [cite: 29

Question 28

28. The bioagents recommended for the management of coconut rhinoceros beetle at breeding sites are i. Trichogramma chelonis ii. Oryctes virus (OrNV) iii. Metarrhiizium anisopliae var major

A

Both i and ii

B

Both i and iii

C

Both ii and iii

D

All of the above [cite: 30

Question 29

29. Select the incorrect statement about management of rice pests from the following.

A

Late transplantation during first crop rice reduce gall midge infestation.

B

Avoiding overlapping cultivation reduce rice bug damage.

C

Draining away water from the elds controls rice case worm.

D

Flooding the eld is helpful for the management of rice swarming caterpillar. [cite: 31

Question 30

30. A technique used to reduce resistance build up in target pests against Bt transgenic cotton

A

maintenance of refugia crop

B

Application of insecticides at regular intervals

C

Setting up of insect traps

D

Release of biocontrol agents [cite: 32

Question 31

31. Producers of mycotoxin patulin is i. Penicillium expansum and Aspergillus clavatus ii. Fusarium moniliformae and Aspergillus parasiticus iii. Chaetomium and Bipolaris iv. Stachbotrys chartarum

A

i only

B

i and iii

C

ii and iii

D

iii and iv [cite: 33

Question 32

32. dikaryotic spores of Puccinia graminis tritici is i. Aeciospores ii. uredospores iii. Teliospores iv. Basidiospores

A

i and ii

B

ii and iii

C

i, ii and iii

D

i, ii, iii and iv [cite: 34

Question 33

33. diseases caused by fastidious phloem inhabiting bacteria is

A

Citrus greening and bunchy top of papaya

B

Pierce disease of grapes and citrus variegated chlorosis

C

Aster yellows, lethal yellowing

D

Citrus stubborn corn stunt [cite: 35

Question 34

34. Disease due to deficiency of Boron is

A

Citrus rosette and yellow streak of corn

B

Sand drown of tobacco and Bronzing in citrus

C

Pahala blight of sugarcane and Gray speck of oats

D

Heart rot of sugarcane and internal cork of apples [cite: 36

Question 35

35. Non enveloped (+)ss RNA viruses is

A

Cauliflower mosaic virus and Maize streak virus

B

Potato virus X and tobacco mosaic virus

C

Tomato spotted wilt virus and lettuce necrotic yellow

D

All of the above [cite: 37

Question 36

36. Toxin with inactivation of glutamine synthetase enzyme as the mode of action is

A

Phaseolotoxin

B

Syringomycin

C

Tentoxin

D

Tabtoxin [cite: 38

Question 37

37. Sectoring of fungal colonies is termed as

A

Parasexual recombination

B

Saltation

C

Variation

D

Heterokaryosis [cite: 39

Question 38

38. Antibiotics which inhibits synthesis of bacterial cell wall is i. Tetracycline ii. Penicillin iii. Cephalosporin iv. Chloramphenicol

A

i and ii

B

ii and iii

C

iii and iv

D

ii and iv [cite: 40

Question 39

39. Signaling molecule in Quorum sensing of Ralstonia solanacearum is i. Homoserine lactones ii. diffusible molecules iii. Palmitic acid methyl ester iv. Oligopeptides

A

i and ii

B

ii and iii

C

i and iii

D

ii and iv [cite: 41

Question 40

40. Causal agent of ginger yellows

A

Ginger chlorotic eck virus

B

Fusarium oxysporum f sp.zingiberi

C

Ginger mosaic virus

D

None of the above [cite: 42

Question 41

41. Choose the correct statement or combination of correct statements. Statement I : For explaining law of segregation, we have to consider at least two characters at a time. Statement II : law of independent assortment will not hold good if chromosomal locations of considering characters are situated very close to each other.

A

I and II

B

I only

C

II only

D

None [cite: 43

Question 42

42. Which is true regarding mutation ? I. It is the primary source of variation. II. It leads to changes both in gene and genotypic frequency. III. It helps in formation of new species. IV. It is a sudden non-heritable change in dNA.

A

I and II

B

I, II and III

C

II, III and IV

D

I, III and IV [cite: 44

Question 43

43. Consider a diploid and purely self pollinating crop. F1 Hybrid is generated in that crop from two genetically divergent inbred parents. Assume that crossing over is prevented in the F1 hybrid by using some technology and selling practiced in F1 as usual except for crossing over. What will be the genetic constitution of resultant generation ? I. comprise homozygous types similar as inbred parents II. comprise heterozygous types similar as parents III. comprise heterozygous types similar as F1 generation IV. comprise homozygous types similar as F1 generation

A

I only

B

III only

C

II and III

D

I and III [cite: 45

Question 44

44. Genetic composition of multiline variety in wheat and gene pyramided variety in rice is

A

homozygous and homogenous in both rice and wheat

B

heterozygous and heterogenous in both rice and wheat

C

homozygous and homogenous in rice; homozygous and heterogenous in wheat

D

homozygous and homogenous in wheat; homozygous and heterogenous in rice [cite: 46

Question 45

45. Choose the correct statement or combination of only correct statements regarding synthetics. I. It is suitable in cross-pollinated crops and lines with high SCA (Specific Combining Ability) are used for production of synthetics. II. Syn1 seeds obtained by random mating of Syn0 lines and Syn1 seeds given to farmers for cultivation. III. Syn2 seeds obtained by selling of Syn1 lines. IV. Syn2 seeds are generally not used for commercial cultivation.

A

I, II and III

B

I and III

C

I, II, III and IV

D

None [cite: 47

Question 46

46. Select the correct combination of statements. When many genes are controlling a particular trait, F2 generation of a cross from inbred parents. I. may not achieve 3 : 1 ratio because law of independent assortment is not followed. II. Express properties of binomial distribution. III. Forms bell shaped curve with mean, median and mode are equal. IV. Extreme phenotypes will be rare in the population.

A

I, II and III

B

II and III

C

III and IV

D

I, II and IV [cite: 48

Question 47

47. In heterosis breeding, for production of hybrids I. Cross combinations with high SCA are selected. II. Inbred lines with high GCA are selected. III. Genetically divergent parents are selected. IV. Genetically similar parents with superior performance are selected.

A

I and III

B

II and IV

C

I and IV

D

II and III [cite: 49

Question 48

48. Which of the following statement and its reason are correct ? Statement \'96 I : Seeds obtained from F1, hybrid of sexually reproducing crops should not be reused for cultivation. Reason for Statement \'96 I : due to segregation, genetic constitution will be changed in next generation. Statement \'96 II : Seeds obtained from hybrid variety of sexually reproducing crops could be reused for cultivation. Reason for Statement \'96 II : Since hybrid variety is stabilized and will be in homozygous condition, seeds could be again used if we are preventing chances of cross pollination with other varieties and mechanical mixing.

A

i and iii

B

i and v

C

ii and iii

D

ii and iv [cite: 50

Question 49

49. Assume that we are generating doubled Haploids (dH) from anther culture. Anthers were collected from a ower in a plant belonged to F1 generation obtained from cross between two genetically divergent inbreds. What will be the genetic constitution of dH population and genetic constitution of F1 population from which owers were taken ?

A

Homozygous and homogenous in dH; Heterozygous and homogenous in F1

B

Heterozygous and heterogenous in dHs; Heterozygous and heterogenous in F1

C

Homozygous and heterogenous in dH; Heterozygous and homogenous in F1

D

Heterozygous and homogenous in both dH and F1 [cite: 52

Question 50

50. Which statement combination is correct ? I. GI status given to agricultural products only in India. II. Darjeeling tea is the first agricultural product that got GI status in India. III. Patents are not granted to crop varieties/hybrids in India.

A

I, II and III

B

II and III

C

I and III

D

I and II [cite: 53

Question 51

51. As per The Seeds Act, 1966, any person aggrieved by a decision of a certification agency under Section 9 or 10, may prefer an appeal to appellate authority within ________ from the date on which the decision is communicated to him and on payment of such fees as may be prescribed, prefer an appeal to such authority as may be specified by the State Government unless the appeal is entertained by the appellate authority on some circumstances.

A

20 days

B

30 days

C

45 days

D

60 days [cite: 54

Question 52

52. Castor hybrids in India are being produced by utilising

A

Cytoplasmic male sterility

B

Self-incompatibility

C

Hand emasculation and pollination

D

Pistillateness of the seed parent [cite: 55

Question 53

53. Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards are published by

A

Central Seed Committee

B

State Seed Certification Agencies

C

Central Seed Certification Board

D

Central Seed Testing laboratory [cite: 56

Question 54

54. A seed lot shall be eligible for extension of the validity period of certified seed is

A

For initial nine months only

B

For one year only

C

For two years only

D

As long as it conforms to the prescribed seed standards [cite: 57

Question 55

55. Provisions under Section 6 of The Seeds Act, 1966 pertains to

A

Power to notify kinds or varieties of seeds

B

Powers to specify minimum limits of germination and purity

C

Grant of certificate by certification agency

D

Revocation of certificate [cite: 58

Question 56

56. In hybrid seed production involving cytoplasmic male sterile lines, a plant of the \'91B\'92 line in the female row (male sterile \'91A\'92 line) is called as a

A

Pollen shedder

B

Shedding tassel

C

Off type

D

Objectionable weed plant [cite: 59

Question 57

57. Registration of varieties to offer for sale of seeds is necessary if

A

Seeds Act, 1966

B

Seed Rules, 1968

C

Seeds (Control) Order, 1983

D

New Seed Bill, 2004 [cite: 60

Question 58

58. designated seed borne disease in brinjal/egg plant is

A

Phomopsis blight

B

Ascochyta blight

C

Ashy stem blight

D

Early blight [cite: 61

Question 59

59. Inter-cropping is applicable to oil seed and pulse crops for the production of

A

Foundation seed only

B

Certified seed only

C

Foundation and certified seed

D

Breeder, foundation and certified seed [cite: 62

Question 60

60. Every licence granted under the Seeds (Control) Order, 1983 shall unless previously suspended or cancelled, remain valid for ________ from the date of its issue.

A

One year

B

Two years

C

Three years

D

Four years [cite: 63

Question 61

61. most important species of anthurium commercially cultivated in India

A

Anthurium crystallinum

B

Anthurium andreanum

C

Anthurium digitatum

D

Anthurium clarinervium [cite: 64

Question 62

62. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the system of training ? I. Bower system of training is practiced in cucurbitaceous vegetables. II. In modified leader system, branches are well distributed. III. Head system of training is practiced in high density planting system. IV. Trees trained in central leader system are best suited to bear loads and resist damage from strong winds.

A

I and II

B

I and III

C

I, III and IV

D

None of the above [cite: 65

Question 63

63. The scientific name of West Indian lemon grass is

A

Cymbopogon pendulus

B

Cymbopogon exuosus

C

Cymbopogon citratus

D

Cymbopogon nardus [cite: 66

Question 64

64. Select the incorrect statement given below relating to the action of growth regulators. I. Abscisic acid inhibits RNA biosynthesis but has no effect on RNA activity. II. Cytokinins promote lateral bud development. III. Cytokinins always interact with auxins. IV. Seedling growth is stimulated by gibberellins treatment.

A

I only

B

I and III

C

III and IV

D

None of the above [cite: 67

Question 65

65. The anticancerous alkaloid vincristine is isolated from which of the following medicinal plant ?

A

Cinchona officinalis

B

Catharanthus roseus

C

Cassia angustifolia

D

Taxus baccata [cite: 68

Question 66

66. The relationship with colour and flavour of cocoa beans and degree of fermentation of beans is indicated in the following statements. Find the correct statement/statements. I. Fully fermented beans are black in colour. II. Purple coloured beans are with low cocoa flavour, strong acidity, astringency and bitterness. III. Brown coloured beans have balance of acidity, astringency and bitterness.

A

I and II are correct

B

I and III are correct

C

II and III are correct

D

All are correct [cite: 69

Question 67

67. Which of the following shrub is grown for foliage purpose ?

A

Gardenia jasminoides

B

Thevetia peruviana

C

Excoecaria bicolor

D

Euphorbia pulcherrima [cite: 70

Question 68

68. Which of the following index/indices is incorrect regarding the selection of coconut seedling ?

A

Seedling aged 9 \'96 12 months

B

Early splitting of leaves

C

Collar girth of 10 \'96 12 cm

D

None of these [cite: 71

Question 69

69. Which of the following produces aggregate fruits ?

A

Fig

B

Breadfruit

C

Custard apple

D

mulberry [cite: 72

Question 70

70. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to plant propagation ? I. Cuttings taken from female trees root better than female trees. II. High carbohydrate with low N level will aid easy rooting. III. Semi hardwood cuttings are also known as greenwood cuttings. IV. Treatment with synthetic auxins at appropriate concentration results in improved rooting.

A

I and II are correct

B

II and IV are correct

C

I, II and IV are correct

D

All are correct [cite: 73

Question 71

71. match the following and choose the right answer : i. Chilli a. Allyl propyl disulphide ii. Onion b. Trigonellin iii. Garlic c. Capsaicin iv. Fenugreek d. diallyl disulphide

A

i \'96 c, ii \'96 d, iii \'96 a, iv \'96 b

B

i \'96 b, ii \'96 d, iii \'96 a, iv \'96 c

C

i \'96 c, ii \'96 a, iii \'96 d, iv \'96 b

D

i \'96 a, ii \'96 b, iii \'96 c, iv \'96 d [cite: 74

Question 72

72. Isolation distance to be kept in production of certified seeds in amaranthus is

A

800 m

B

400 m

C

200 m

D

100 m [cite: 75

Question 73

73. Which of the following statements on brinjal varieties are true ? i. Surya, Swetha and Haritha are bacterial wilt resistant varieties. ii. Haritha is bacterial wilt resistant but Surya and Swetha are not resistant to bacterial wilt. iii. Surya is purple fruited and Swetha and Haritha are green fruited. iv. Surya, Swetha and Haritha are high yielding but susceptible to bacterial wilt.

A

i

B

iii and iv

C

ii

D

i and iii [cite: 76

Question 74

74. Choose the correct match on harvesting stage of tomato based on use. i. Pink stage a. distant market ii. mature green stage b. Canning and pickling iii. Full ripe stage c. Home or table purpose iv. Ripe stage d. local market

A

i \'96 a, ii \'96 d, iii \'96 b, iv \'96 c

B

i \'96 b, ii \'96 a, iii \'96 d, iv \'96 c

C

i \'96 d, ii \'96 a, iii \'96 b, iv \'96 c

D

i \'96 b, ii \'96 a, iii \'96 c, iv \'96 d [cite: 77

Question 75

75. Select the correct statement. i. Snake gourd, pointed gourd and ivy gourd are monoecious in nature. ii. Snake gourd is monoecious but pointed gourd and ivy gourd are dioecious. iii. Ivy gourd is dioecious but snake gourd and pointed gourd are monoecious. iv. Snake gourd, Ivy gourd and pointed gourd are dioecious.

A

iii

B

ii

C

Both ii and iii

D

None of the above [cite: 78

Question 76

76. Blossom end rot of tomato is due to

A

Fungi

B

Bacteria

C

Deficiency of potassium

D

Deficiency of calcium [cite: 79

Question 77

77. Select the correct match of the following. i. Winged bean a. Canavalia ensiformis ii. Sword bean b. Canavalia gladiata iii. Jack bean c. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba iv. Cluster bean d. Psophocarpus tetragonolobus

A

i \'96 d, ii \'96 a, iii \'96 b, iv \'96 c

B

i \'96 d, ii \'96 b, iii \'96 a, iv \'96 c

C

i \'96 c, ii \'96 b, iii \'96 a, iv \'96 d

D

i \'96 b, ii \'96 a, iii \'96 d, iv \'96 c [cite: 80

Question 78

78. Chilli is a

A

day neutral plant

B

long day plant

C

Short day plant

D

None of the above [cite: 81

Question 79

79. Choose the incorrect statement. i. Tomato is a self pollinated crop but bitter gourd is cross pollinated crop. ii. Cowpea is a self pollinated crop but bhindi is an often cross pollinated crop. iii. Tomato and cowpea are not self pollinated crops. iv. Snake gourd and bitter gourd are cross pollinated crops.

A

iv

B

iii

C

i

D

All are incorrect [cite: 82

Question 80

80. Seed production of cabbage is done through

A

Seed to seed method

B

Head to seed method

C

Both seed to seed and head to seed method

D

None of the above [cite: 83

Question 81

81. In differentiated pricing, companies often adjust the product price according to

A

Product

B

location

C

Customer

D

All of the above [cite: 84

Question 82

82. The concept of consumer\'92s surplus was first introduced by

A

Adam Smith

B

Pigou

C

Alfred marshall

D

None of the above [cite: 85

Question 83

83. utility analysis or marshallian approach of consumer\'92s behaviour is often called as

A

Ordinal approach

B

Indifference curve

C

Cardinal approach

D

None of the above [cite: 86

Question 84

84. Social costs are also called as

A

Private costs

B

Externalities

C

Explicit costs

D

None of the above [cite: 87

Question 85

85. Geographical market segmentation is a sub-set of

A

demographic market segmentation

B

Firmographic market segmentation

C

Behavioural segmentation

D

Psychographic segmentation [cite: 88

Question 86

86. ________ is the capacity of a good to command other things in exchange.

A

Price

B

Value

C

maximum retail price

D

None of the above [cite: 89

Question 87

87. A product pricing strategy by which a rm charges the highest initial price that customers will pay and then lowers it over time

A

Product penetration

B

Price skimming

C

Product mix

D

None of the above [cite: 90

Question 88

88. Companies that have patents or extensive research and development costs such as pharmaceutical companies are considered as

A

Natural monopolies

B

monopolistic

C

Price monopoly

D

Public monopoly [cite: 91

Question 89

89. The demand for a good means

A

desire to buy

B

Willingness to purchase

C

Ability to pay for the good

D

All of the above [cite: 92

Question 90

90. What is the meaning of the term economists use \'93ceteris paribus\'94 ?

A

All the variables are held constant

B

All the other independent variables affecting the dependent variable are held constant

C

Both of the above

D

None of these [cite: 93

Question 91

91. Which of the following is not a group formation stage ?

A

Alarming

B

Storming

C

Norming

D

Performing [cite: 94

Question 92

92. The autonomous body registered under Societies Act to implement extension schemes at district level

A

NABARD

B

KVK

C

SAMETI

D

ATMA [cite: 95

Question 93

93. The \'91Panchayati Raj System\'92 was implemented based on

A

Hanumantha Rao Committee

B

GmF Enquiry Committee

C

Balwant Rai mehta Committee

D

Ashok mehta Committee [cite: 96

Question 94

94. The Entrepreneurship development Institute of India is located at

A

New delhi

B

Ahmedabad

C

Hyderabad

D

Bangalore [cite: 97

Question 95

95. The planning commission was replaced by ________ in the year 2015.

A

Five year plans

B

RKVY

C

NITI Ayog

D

NATP [cite: 98

Question 96

96. DARE stands for

A

development of Agricultural Research and Employment

B

department of Agriculture and Rural Entrepreneurship

C

district Agency for Rural Employment

D

department of Agricultural Research and Education [cite: 99

Question 97

97. Which of the following are the mandatory activities of KVK ? i. OFT ii. Fld iii. PTd

A

Only (i and iii)

B

Only (i and ii)

C

Only (ii and iii)

D

All the above (i, ii and iii) [cite: 100

Question 98

98. IVlP is the acronym of

A

Institution Village linkage Program

B

Indian Village livelihood Program

C

Integrated Veterinary and livestock Program

D

Intensive Village literacy Program [cite: 101

Question 99

99. ________ is a powerful PRA technique to understand relationship between different institutes and people\'92s perception of their usefulness.

A

Resource mapping

B

Venn diagram

C

matrix ranking

D

Trend analysis

Question 100

100. The program implemented in 1979 by ICAR as part of its Golden Jubilee celebrations

A

National demonstration Project

B

Operational Research Project

C

Lab to Land Programme

D

Krishi Vigyan Kendra

001/2025 - FARM ASSISTANT GRADE II (AGRI)