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137/2021 - Engineering Assistant/Overseer Gr I (Electronics)

You are currently taking the Engineering Assistant (Electronics) series. Good luck!

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Question 1
A semiconductor has _______ valence electrons.
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 2
In a ______ the energy gap between the conduction band and valence band of a substance is of the order of 0.7 eV
A
conductor
B
semiconductor
C
insulator
D
none of the above
Question 3
In a Zener regulator, change in load current produces change in _______
A
Zener current
B
Zener voltage
C
A & B
D
None of the above
Question 4
Maximum efficiency of a half wave rectifier is ______
A
50%
B
25%
C
40.6%
D
81.2%
Question 5
A center tap full wave rectifier consists of _______ diodes.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 6
What is the type of filter shown in the figure?
A
Low pass filter
B
High pass filter
C
Band pass filter
D
Band reject filter
Question 7
In a transistor there are ______ depletion layers.
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 8
If the value of α in a transistor is 0.9, then value of b is ______
A
9
B
10
C
90
D
100
Question 9
Where should be the bias point set in order to make transistor work as an amplifier?
A
active
B
cutoff
C
saturation
D
none of the above
Question 10
Emitter follower is used for ______
A
current gain
B
voltage gain
C
impedance matching
D
none of the above
Question 11
Which among the following does not belong to the category of LC oscillators?
A
Hartley oscillator
B
Colpitts oscillator
C
crystal oscillator
D
none of the above
Question 12
The channel of a JFET is between the ______
A
input and output
B
gate and drain
C
gate and source
D
drain and source
Question 13
Choose the correct statement
A
MOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, two terminal device
B
MOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, two terminal device
C
MOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, three terminal device
D
MOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, three terminal device
Question 14
What are the working regions of a unijunction transistor?
A
Negative Resistance region
B
Saturation region
C
Linear region
D
Cutoff region
Question 15
Which of the following is/are optoelectronic devices?
A
photodiodes
B
light emitting diodes
C
solar cells
D
all of the above
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Question 16
An optocoupler provides _______ between input and output
A
induction
B
amplification
C
isolation
D
oscillation
Question 17
Clamping is the process of introducing a/an ______
A
dc level to a dc signal
B
dc level to an ac signal
C
ac level to a dc signal
D
ac level to an ac signal
Question 18
A square wave oscillator is a/an ______ multivibrator.
A
astable
B
monostable
C
bistable
D
none of the above
Question 19
The Op-amp can amplify ______
A
dc signals only
B
ac signals only
C
both dc and ac signals
D
none of the above
Question 20
The common-mode voltage gain of an Op-amp is _______
A
equal to differential voltage gain
B
smaller than differential voltage gain
C
greater than differential voltage gain
D
none of the above
Question 21
What is the feedback factor of voltage follower circuit?
A
zero
B
unity
C
between zero and one
D
infinity
Question 22
The internal circuitry of the 555 timer consists of _____, an R-S flip-flop, a transistor switch, an output buffer amplifier, and a voltage divider.
A
a peak detector
B
a comparator
C
a voltage amplifier
D
two comparators
Question 23
The 7912 regulator IC provides _______
A
5v
B
–5v
C
12v
D
–12v
Question 24
The fastest A/D converter is _______ ADC
A
single slope ramp comparator
B
dual slope integrator
C
successive approximation
D
counter type
Question 25
What is the disadvantage of binary weighted type DAC?
A
slow switching
B
requires wide range of resistors
C
high operationg frequency
D
high power consumption
Question 26
The phase velocity of a waveguide at cutoff frequency is
A
Zero
B
Finite
C
Infinite
D
One
Question 27
For a short circuited loss-less line having length less than a quarter wavelength will have input impedance
A
Purely Inductive
B
Purely resistive
C
Resonative
D
Purely capacitive
Question 28
The main reason for occurring of standing waves is due to
A
Dispersion
B
Impedance mismatch
C
Reflection
D
Transmission mode
Question 29
The speakers which cover the frequencies from 16Hz to 1000Hz are called
A
Squawkers
B
Tweeters
C
Baffle
D
Woofers
Question 30
The ratio of the current or voltage entering the network to the current or voltage leaving the network is known as
A
Characteristic Impedance
B
Propagation Constant
C
Iterative Impedance
D
Image Impedance
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Question 31
A number of identical parallel antennas arranged along a line perpendicular to the line of array axis and each element fed with current of equal magnitude and same phase is known as
A
Broad side array
B
Log periodic array
C
End fire array
D
Collinear array
Question 32
RF amplifier in a super heterodyne receiver is used to
A
increase tracking
B
increase adjacent-channel rejection
C
increase the tuning range
D
increase rejection of the image frequency
Question 33
In TV circuits the equalizing pulses are sent during
A
horizontal blanking
B
horizontal retrace
C
vertical retrace
D
vertical blanking
Question 34
Frequencies in the UHF range are normally propagated by
A
space waves
B
sky waves
C
surface waves
D
ground waves
Question 35
An example for multiband HF receiving antenna is
A
conical horn
B
folded dipole
C
rhombic loop
D
log periodic
Question 36
A PIN diode is
A
a semiconductor point-contact diode
B
used as a microwave switch
C
often used as a microwave detector
D
a microwave mixer diode
Question 37
The modulation system which is commonly used in telegraphic communication is
A
pulse-code modulation
B
two-tone modulation
C
frequency-shift keying
D
single-tone modulation
Question 38
The code which is used for parity checks is
A
Gray
B
ASCII
C
EBCDIC
D
Baudot
Question 39
The transmission rate of data in a modem is measured in
A
bytes per second
B
Gigahertz
C
bits per second
D
word per minute
Question 40
The On-Off keying method of data transmission is otherwise known as
A
ASK
B
FSK
C
PSK
D
BPSK
Question 41
The type of microphone used in telephone is
A
Condenser microphone
B
Ribbon microphone
C
Peizo electric
D
Carbon microphone
Question 42
The type of noise which is having greater impact at high frequencies is
A
random noise
B
Johnson noise
C
transit-time noise
D
shot noise
Question 43
Which of the following modulation system is the most noise resistant one?
A
PWM
B
Delta
C
PCM
D
Differential PCM
Question 44
The reason for Rayleigh scattering loss in optical fibre is
A
bending of fibre
B
structural fault in glass
C
impurities present
D
due to dispersion
Question 45
Quantizing noise occurs in
A
amplitude modulation
B
frequency modulation
C
pulse-code modulation
D
pulse-width modulation
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Question 46
The main disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is
A
does not give target range
B
does not give target position
C
does not give target velocity
D
does not give angular position of target
Question 47
The circuit that separates sync pulses from the composite video waveform is
A
Schmitt trigger
B
a clipper
C
an integrator
D
a differentiator
Question 48
Optical fibres used for communication purpose are mostly fabricated using
A
Silica
B
Plastic
C
Ceramics
D
Copper
Question 49
Which of the following expression is true in the case of open circuit parameters?
A
V₁ = Z₁₁ V₁ + Z₁₂ I₂
B
V₁ = Z₁₁ I₁ + Z₁₂ V₂
C
V₁ = Z₁₁ I₁ + Z₁₂ I₂
D
V2 = Z₁₁ I₁ + Z₁₂ I₂
Question 50
The A scope displays
A
target position and range
B
the target velocity
C
the target position
D
the target range only
Question 51
According to Kepler"s law, the orbit of any smaller body about a larger body is always _______
A
Circular
B
Polar
C
Ellipse
D
Inclined
Question 52
Perigee is
A
the point on the satellite orbit farthest from the centre of earth
B
the point on the satellite orbit nearest to the centre of earth
C
the point on the earth that is farthest from the centre of satellite orbit
D
the point on the earth nearest to the centre of satellite orbit
Question 53
The inclination of a retrograde orbit lies between
A
0° and 90°
B
90° and 180°
C
180° and 270°
D
270° and 360°
Question 54
Geosynchronous orbit is at a distance of _______ above the surface of the earth
A
5000 KM
B
46756 KM
C
34000 KM
D
35786 KM
Question 55
The project Iridium is the most important application of
A
LEO satellites
B
MEO satellites
C
GEO satellites
D
HEO satellites
Question 56
"The apogee and perigee are always exactly opposite to each other" – the statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Partially True
D
Irrelevant
Question 57
The basic cassegrain antenna consists of
A
a main paraboloid and a sub reflector, which is an ellipsoid
B
a main paraboloidal reflector
C
a main paraboloid and a sub reflector which is hyperboloid
D
a main hyperboloid and a sub reflector which is paraboloid
Question 58
Denoting the focal distance of a parabolic reflector by "p" and focal length "f" then the Space Attenuation Function (SAF) is given by
A
p/f
B
(p/f)^2
C
f/p
D
(f/p)^2
Question 59
Satellites known as "spinners" are used for
A
Spin control
B
Attitude control
C
Power control
D
Orbit control
Question 60
Station keeping is applicable for
A
Orbit control of Geostationary satellites
B
Attitude control of Geostationary satellites
C
Power control of Geostationary satellites
D
Thermal control of Geostationary satellites
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Question 61
The system which allows the antenna to handle transmit or receive signals simultaneously is known as
A
Diplexer
B
Duplexer
C
Combiner
D
Divider
Question 62
Which was the first communication satellite placed in the Geostationary orbit?
A
MSAT
B
INSAT I
C
VSAT
D
INTELSAT I
Question 63
The series of interconnected units which forms a single communication channel between transmit and receive antennas in a communication satellite is known as
A
Transceivers
B
Demultiplexers
C
Transponders
D
Duplexers
Question 64
The TV system employs a single outdoor unit so that all channels are made available simultaneously at the indoor receiver is named as
A
MA TV
B
DBS TV
C
FM TV
D
CA TV
Question 65
The ascending nodes of orbits in the GPS constellation are separated by ______ and the inclination of each orbit is ______
A
70°, 65°
B
60°, 55°
C
50°, 45°
D
40°, 35°
Question 66
"The passive satellite cannot generate power of its own and it reflects the incident power"; the statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Partially True
D
Irrelevant
Question 67
Which co-ordinate system is used with GPS system?
A
Geosynchronous-equatorial co-ordinate system
B
Earthcentric-equatorial co-ordinate system
C
Geocentric-equatorial coordinate system
D
Both (B) & (C)
Question 68
The effects of eclipse does not affect the operation of Geostationary satellite, if the satellite longitudes are _______ of earth station.
A
North East
B
North West
C
East
D
West
Question 69
Solar panels in satellites are arranged in the form of ______ to obtain high power.
A
rectangular arrays
B
cylindrical arrays
C
rectangular solar sails
D
cylindrical solar sails
Question 70
The system which transmits information about the satellite to earth station and receives command signals from the earth station is known as
A
Transponder
B
TT & C
C
Transceiver
D
LNA
Question 71
The temperature extremes experienced from solar flux and cold background of deep space can be minimized by
A
Spinning satellites
B
Body stabilized satellites
C
Both (A) & (B)
D
None of the above
Question 72
"Space Transportation System (STS) is an expendable launch vehicle" – the statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Irrelevant
D
None of these
Question 73
Which band of frequencies are used for the satellite services in MSAT?
A
C-band
B
Ka-band
C
Ku-band
D
L-band
Question 74
In C-band, the nominal up link and downlink frequencies are
A
8GHz and 6GHz
B
12GHz and 4GHz
C
6GHz and 4GHz
D
12GHz and 6GHz
Question 75
The conditions required for an orbit to be geostationary
A
the orbit must be elliptical
B
the orbit must be circular
C
the orbit must be polar
D
the orbit must be inclined
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Question 76
First version of GSM used
A
64 full duplex channels
B
124 full duplex channels
C
64 half duplex channels
D
124 half duplex channels
Question 77
The minimum distance which allows the same frequency to be reused will depend on
A
Number of co-channel cells in the vicinity of center cell
B
The type of geographic terrain
C
The antenna height and transmitted power at each cell site
D
All of the above
Question 78
Transmission power of a cell has to be limited in order to
A
Achieve higher capacity
B
Avoid interference with the next cell using the same frequency
C
Avoid multipath propagation
D
None of the above
Question 79
The time over which a call is made within a cell without handoff is called ______
A
delay time
B
dwell time
C
seek time
D
guard time
Question 80
In fast fading
A
Coherence time is greater than symbol period
B
Coherence time is lesser than symbol period
C
Coherence time is equal to symbol period
D
Coherence time is independent of symbol period
Question 81
In FDM, frequency band overlapping is avoided using
A
Guard band
B
Framing band
C
Synchronizing pulses
D
None of the above
Question 82
In a cell, which is the radio channel used for transmission of call setup, call request and call initiation _______?
A
Forward channel
B
Control channel
C
Uplink channel
D
Reverse channel
Question 83
The handoff operation involves
A
Identifying the MSC and the call will be connected to the MSC
B
Identifies the voice channel to instruct the mobile telephone to ring
C
Identifying a new base station and reallocating the channels with the new base station.
D
Instructs the base station to move the call to an unused voice channel within the cell
Question 84
Code Division multiple access scheme is based on
A
QPSK
B
BPSK
C
Spread spectrum technology
D
BFSK
Question 85
Delay spread is due to
A
Multipath reflection
B
Frequency dispersion
C
Fresnel zone
D
Doppler effect
Question 86
Which of the following is true in a DECT system?
A
The range is limited to about 300m from base station
B
Can handle handover, but it is not designed to work at high speed
C
Works at a frequency range of 1880-1990 MHz
D
All of the above
Question 87
The channel capacity may be improved by using
A
Cell splitting
B
Hand off
C
Frequency hopping
D
Channel spacing
Question 88
If bandwidth over which the channel has constant gain and linear phase response is smaller than the bandwidth of the transmitted signal, the received signal undergoes _______
A
Flat fading
B
Rayleigh fading
C
Frequency selective fading
D
Slow fading
Question 89
_______ is a dynamic database which stores all important information needed for users currently associated to the MSC.
A
ISDN
B
VLR
C
HLR
D
EIR
Question 90
In mobile communication, the commonly used shape of a cell is hexagon because
A
Fewer number of cells are required
B
Provides maximum processing density than any other geometrical shape
C
It leaves no uncovered area
D
All of the above
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Question 91
Which of the following multiple access scheme is using soft handover?
A
FDMA
B
TDMA
C
SDMA
D
CDMA
Question 92
The operation subsystem of GSM has OMC, AuC and EIR. Here EIR stands for
A
Enhanced identity register
B
Equipment identity register
C
Electronic identity register
D
Equipment inbuilt register
Question 93
Crosstalk from two different radio transmitters using the same channel may result in _______.
A
Adjacent channel interference
B
Multiple access interference
C
Co-channel interference
D
Self-interference
Question 94
______ resolves the problem of limited radio spectrum.
A
handover
B
cell splitting
C
frequency hopping
D
MAC
Question 95
The statistical measure of the range of frequency over which the channel can be considered flat is known as _______
A
Coherence time
B
Transmission bandwidth
C
Coherence bandwidth
D
Propagation time
Question 96
In a GSM system identify the function of MSC.
A
Takes care of handoff from one BTS to the other
B
Stores dynamic information while logged onto GSM
C
Co-ordinates all the activities of base station and connects the entire cellular system to PSTN.
D
All of the above
Question 97
In GSM _____ is used to separate uplink and downlink
A
TDM
B
FDD
C
TDD
D
FDM
Question 98
Suppose there are N cells in a cellular system and each cell is allocated K channel the total number of available channel is given by
A
S = N + K
B
S = K/N
C
S = N/K
D
S – K * N
Question 99
Before a subscriber can use any service from GSM network, he must be authenticated. This authentication is based on _______
A
ISDN
B
SIM
C
DTMF
D
BTS
Question 100
Near-far effect is a severe problem in wireless networks using ______
A
TDMA
B
FDMA
C
SDMA
D
CDMA