EASY PSC | 115/2022 - Blood Bank Technician

Question 1

Gauge size of needle used for blood donation :

A

14 G

B

10 G

C

21 G

D

16 G

Question 2

Disease not transmitted by blood transfusion is :

A

Hepatitis B

B

Hepatitis C

C

Hepatitis A

D

Hepatitis D

Question 3

Platelet concentrate is prepared by :

A

Heavy spin followed by light spin

B

Light spin followed by heavy spin

C

Light spin only

D

Heavy spin only

Question 4

Plasmapheresis is done for the following clinical condition :

A

Multiple myeloma

B

Allergic condition

C

Hypokalemia

D

None of the above

Question 5

Blood can be stored upto how much days with CPDA solution :

A

28

B

35

C

48

D

42

Question 6

Most suitable diluent for preparing a solution of 8% Bovine albumin :

A

Distilled water

B

Deionised water

C

Normal saline

D

None of the above

Question 7

The storage temperature for Fresh Frozen Plasma is :

A

4°C

B

–50°C

C

37°C

D

–20°C

Question 8

Minimum weight for a blood donor is :

A

110 lbs

B

100 lbs

C

85 lbs

D

95 lbs

Question 9

Cryoprecipitate is used for the treatment of :

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

B

Haemophilia A

C

Sickle cell anaemia

D

Haemophilia B

Question 10

Blood collection is permanently deferred in :

A

Residence in an endemic malaria region

B

Diabetes

C

History of jaundice of uncertain cause

D

History of therapeutic rabies vaccine

Question 11

The venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing :

A

10% Acetone

B

Hypochlorite

C

Isopropyl alcohol

D

Povidone iodine

Question 12

All donor blood testing must include :

A

Direct Coomb's test

B

Serological test for syphilis

C

Complex Rh phenotyping

D

Anti CMV testing

Question 13

An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is :

A

Plasma pH

B

Prothrombin time

C

Plasma potassium level

D

Activated partial thromboplastin time

Question 14

The concentration of 2,3 - di phospho glycerate is decreased during storage in a unit of :

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma

B

Platelet Rich Plasma

C

Cryoprecipitate

D

Red blood cells

Question 15

An Individual with D negative blood group have one of the following on their RBC membrane :

A

Antigen RhD

B

Antigen RhCE

C

Both RhD and RhCE

D

None of the above

Question 16

The enzyme involved in conversion of H substance into A and B antigens :

A

Aryl sulfatase

B

Hexosaminidase

C

Glycosyl transferase

D

None of the above

Question 17

hh genotype (oh phenotype) refers to blood group :

A

Kell

B

Duffy

C

Bombay

D

A

Question 18

The anti A and anti B immune antibodies are mostly :

A

IgG

B

IgM

C

IgA

D

IgD

Question 19

Immunodominant sugar of H antigens :

A

D – galactose

B

L – fructose

C

L – fucose

D

None of the above

Question 20

The blood group system based on cold reacting antibodies :

A

Duffy system

B

Kell system

C

MNS system

D

Rh system

Question 21

The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperature is :

A

anti-Luᵃᵇ

B

anti-Luᵇ

C

anti-Lu3

D

anti-Luᵃ

Question 22

Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin A?

A

M, N

B

Leᵃ, Leᵇ

C

S,s

D

None of the above

Question 23

The Kell antigen is :

A

absent on red cells of neonates

B

destroyed by enzymes

C

strongly immunogenic

D

all of the above

Question 24

The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system :

A

can cause allergic transfusion reactions

B

react best by the Indirect Coomb's Test

C

are predominantly IgM

D

all of the above

Question 25

Which of the following blood group is compatible for A negative blood group?

A

A positive

B

O positive

C

B positive

D

O negative

Question 26

Most blood group systems are inherited as :

A

Autosomal co dominant

B

Sex linked dominant

C

Sex linked recessive

D

Autosomal recessive

Question 27

Both parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in offspring :

A

AB

B

A

C

B

D

All of the above

Question 28

Colour of antiserum AB is :

A

Blue

B

Pink

C

Green

D

Colourless

Question 29

Blood cells are produced mainly from :

A

Heart

B

Lungs

C

Veins

D

Bone marrow

Question 30

Which of the following is not true about citrate as an anticoagulant?

A

It is used in preservative solution in blood bags

B

Used to collect blood for coagulations studies

C

It prevent clotting by inhibiting thrombin

D

All the above

Question 31

Phlebotomy means :

A

Disposal of unused specimen

B

Collection of blood

C

Separation of blood from serum

D

Instrument used to ensure QC in lab

Question 32

Delay in releasing tourniquet during venipuncture causing :

A

Escape of fluid and haemo concentration

B

Haemo dilution

C

Both (A) and (B)

D

Haemo concentration

Question 33

Blood group antigens of ABO system are made up of mainly :

A

Fatty acids

B

Proteins

C

Pyramidins

D

Purins

Question 34

Blood group having both anti A and anti B in their sera :

A

A group

B

B group

C

O group

D

AB group

Question 35

Which is not correct about H antigen?

A

Present in all ABO group individuals

B

If not present H antibody will be there in plasma

C

Besides in blood cells it is present in tissues also

D

H antigen present in Bombay group individuals

Question 36

Hybridoma technique is used :

A

To produce monoclonal antibodies

B

To screen blood donors

C

To store blood

D

To separate blood components

Question 37

Coombs test is otherwise known as :

A

Compatibility test

B

Anti Human Globulin test

C

Tissue typing test

D

Donor confidence test

Question 38

In Indirect Coombs test ,sensitivity can be increased by the addition of :

A

Enzymes

B

Albumin

C

LISS

D

All the above

Question 39

In Indirect Coombs test, sensitivity can be increased by the addition of :

A

Enzymes

B

Albumin

C

LISS

D

All the above

Question 40

Which type of cells are used as reagent cells in Coombs test :

A

AB group cells

B

Rh positive O group cells

C

B group cells

D

Rh negative O group cells

Question 41

False negative results in AHG test may occur due to :

A

Prozone affect

B

Inadequate incubation

C

Inadequate washing

D

All the above

Question 42

False positive results in coombs test may resulted from :

A

Over centrifugation

B

Cold antibody in sample

C

Dirty glass wares

D

All the above

Question 43

During antibody detection cells that acts as auto control are :

A

Patients serum

B

Patient own cells

C

Pooled cells from donor

D

Bombay group cells

Question 44

Antibodies that are set to be ‘complete, cold and bigger in size’ are :

A

IgM

B

IgG

C

IgE

D

IgA

Question 45

During preservation of reagent red cells, cryoprotective agent is :

A

Sucrose

B

Glycerol

C

Both (A) and (B)

D

None of these

Question 46

Characteristics of IgG antibody include :

A

Detected by enzyme test

B

They are warm antibodies

C

Detected by ICT

D

All the above

Question 47

Technical errors that leads to transfusion reactions except :

A

Errors in blood grouping

B

Errors in antibody detection

C

Failure to observe compatibility results

D

Donors unwillingness to donate blood

Question 48

Majority of transfusion reactions are of type :

A

AHTR

B

FNHTR

C

GVH

D

Circulatory overload

Question 49

Patients who receive repeated transfusions may develop :

A

Haemosiderosis

B

Haemolytic reactions

C

Non-haemolytic reactions

D

Anaphylactic transfusion reaction

Question 50

Non-haemolytic transfusion reaction include :

A

Pink plasma

B

No increase in bilirubin

C

No haemoglobinuria

D

(B) and (C) are correct

Question 51

Result of a compatibility test is observed as :

A

Agglutination

B

Haemolysis

C

Increase in temperature

D

Either agglutination or haemolysis

Question 52

Intravascular transfusion reactions are due to :

A

IgG

B

IgM and complement

C

Phagocytosis

D

None of the above

Question 53

AHTR means :

A

Arterial Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

B

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

C

Acute Hemolytic Treatment Response

D

Adult Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

Question 54

Colour of AHG reagent is :

A

Blue

B

Colourless

C

Pink

D

Green

Question 55

For DAT patient cell suspension is prepared as :

A

2-4%

B

0.5-1%

C

10-20%

D

None of the above

Question 56

LISS is a type of :

A

Incubator

B

Saline solution

C

Component separator

D

Cleaning solution

Question 57

A serological marker of HBV infection indicating active viral replication or high infectivity :

A

HbsAg

B

HBeAg

C

HbcAg

D

None of the above

Question 58

Which statement is true regarding P. Vivax :

A

Shows cytoadherence

B

Maurer’s dots are seen

C

Dormant hepatic stages called hypnozoites can cause relapse

D

Cycle of Schizogony is completed in 72 hrs.

Question 59

T. Pallidum may be demonstrated by:

A

Fontana’s method

B

India Ink method

C

Dark ground microscopy

D

All of the above

Question 60

HCV belongs to the family :

A

Flaviviridae

B

Picornaviridae

C

Arenaviridae

D

None of the above

Question 61

Antibody marker of HBV acute infection is :

A

anti Hbₛ

B

anti HB꜀ IgG

C

anti Hbₑ

D

anti HB꜀ IgM

Question 62

Identify a non specific test for syphilis from the following :

A

IC – Rapid strip test

B

TPPA

C

TRUST

D

FTA-ABS

Question 63

Which among the following is a DNA virus?

A

HAV

B

HBV

C

HCV

D

HEV

Question 64

Malaria antigen test is based on the principle :

A

CIA

B

PCR

C

Immunofluorescence

D

None of the above

Question 65

Which among the following is not a character of HIV 2?

A

It progresses at a slower rate

B

Mainly present in West Africa

C

Contains the envelope protein gp⁴¹ and gp¹²⁰

D

Lower rate of transmission

Question 66

Australia antigen is the surface component of :

A

HCV

B

HEV

C

HIV

D

HBV

Question 67

Malignant tertiary malaria is caused by :

A

P. Falciparum

B

P. vivax

C

P. Ovale

D

P. malariae

Question 68

Find out the false statement from the following regarding specific treponemal tests :

A

Positive test indicate infection

B

Tests may become non reactive in late syphilis

C

Used to check positive cardiolipin test reaction

D

Tests remain positive for many years

Question 69

The risk of HIV transmission through infected blood transfusion is estimated to be :

A

5%

B

30%

C

70%

D

90%

Question 70

Serological marker of active HCV infection is :

A

Anti-HCV

B

HCV RNA

C

Both (A) and (B)

D

None of the above

Question 71

Ham test is used for the definitive diagnosis of :

A

CHAD

B

PNH

C

Hereditary hydrocytosis

D

None of the above

Question 72

Find out the false statement regarding HDNB :

A

The affected infant presents with anemia

B

Reticulocyte is increased

C

Nucleated RBC is increased

D

Conjugated bilirubin is increased

Question 73

Anticoagulant to blood ratio of CPDA-1 in a blood bag is :

A

1 : 6

B

1 : 7

C

1 : 8

D

None of the above

Question 74

Laboratory diagnosis of AIHA include :

A

Reticulocyte count

B

DCT

C

Haptoglobin test

D

All of the above

Question 75

Amniocentesis in indicated when the maternal antibody titre is :

A

1 : 8

B

1 : 16

C

1 : 32

D

None of the above

Question 76

Each unit of whole blood increase the Hb level :

A

0.5 g/dl

B

1 g/dl

C

2 g/dl

D

None of the above

Question 77

Name the chart used to measure the severity of HDN :

A

Liley’s chart

B

Cusum chart

C

Levey-Jenning’s chart

D

Shewhart chart

Question 78

Massive transfusion can lead to :

A

Hypothermia

B

A fall in blood pH

C

Excess of citrate

D

All of the above

Question 79

Identify a false statement regarding multiple transfusion :

A

Whole blood transfusion is preferred

B

Blood less than 10 days should be used for transfusion

C

Patients should be given iron chelating agents

D

None of the above

Question 80

Which blood component is administered in Von Willebrand disease?

A

Packed red cell

B

Cryoprecipitate

C

Platelet concentrate

D

FFP

Question 81

Which of the following methods of transfusion eliminates the risk of alloimmunization, haemolytic, febrile and allergic reaction and transmission of diseases?

A

Massive transfusion

B

Exchange transfusion

C

Autologous transfusion

D

Whole blood transfusion

Question 82

A person who needs red blood cell transfusion has a history of febrile transfusion reaction, which is the component of choice in this case?

A

Packed red blood cells

B

Fresh whole blood

C

Leukocyte poor red blood cell

D

All the above

Question 83

Intra operative blood salvage, Post operative Blood salvage, Acute isovolaemic haemodilution are types of :

A

PRP preparation methods

B

Exchange transfusion methods

C

Packed cell preparation methods

D

Autologous transfusion methods

Question 84

The mandatory Pre transfusion tests to be done for autologous transfusion are :

A

ABO Typing and Rh Typing

B

Major and Minor Cross Matching

C

No tests are required

D

All tests including screening tests

Question 85

Which of the following is suitable blood for exchange transfusion in case of Haemolytic disease of new born caused by ABO incompatibility?

A

Identical blood with Rh negative blood type

B

Identical blood with Rh positive blood type

C

Blood identical to Mother’s blood

D

Blood group O, with Rh negative blood type

Question 86

The interval between two apheresis procedures should be at least :

A

24 hours

B

One week

C

Three months

D

48 hours

Question 87

Of the blood oxygen carriers which of the following has the longest shelf life?

A

Stroma free Haemoglobin

B

Perflourochemical compounds

C

Cross linked Haemoglobin

D

Micro encapsulated haemoglobin

Question 88

Which of the following is used as sedimenting agent for granulocytapheresis?

A

Crystalloids

B

Albumin

C

Hydroxyethyl starch

D

Dexamethasone

Question 89

A form of apheresis which is a standard therapy used for treatment of Cutaneous T Cell Lymphoma and also Graft versus host reaction is :

A

Plasmapheresis

B

Therapeutic leucopheresis

C

Photopheresis

D

Neocytapheresis

Question 90

Haemoglobin based Oxygen carriers do not require –––––––––– for Oxygen release.

A

2,3-Diphosphoglycerate

B

2,3-Diphosphoglycomate

C

Pyridoxal phosphate

D

Thrombosol

Question 91

As part of specific requirements all blood units should be typed for Rh D antigen and Du Antigen. All RhD negative and Du positive persons are considered as D positive when they are (a) –––––––––– and D negative when they are (b) –––––––––– :

A

(a) Recipient (b) Donor

B

(a) Donor (b) Recipient

C

Always considered as positive as donor and as recipient

D

None of the above

Question 92

Which of the following is false regarding quality control of ABO antisera?

A

No Heamolysis

B

No turbidity

C

Clear cut reaction with known antigen

D

Weekly quality assessment

Question 93

For Quality assurance in Rh grouping we use :

A

Monoclonal Anti D

B

Polyclonal Anti D

C

Blend of IgM + IgG monoclonal anti D

D

Use of one IgM and one blend of IgM+ IgG

Question 94

Acceptable titre as part of quality control for monoclonal Anti A and Anti B sera is :

A

1 : 32

B

1 : 128

C

1 : 256

D

1 : 64

Question 95

Inclusion of O cells and autocontrol is a must in reverse grouping to rule out :

A

Bombay blood group

B

Allo antibodies

C

Rouleaux formation

D

All the above

Question 96

Polyspecific antihuman globulin is usually available as a combination of anti IgG and a anti complement component except :

A

Anti C₃ d

B

Anti C₄ d

C

Anti C₁ b

D

Anti C₃ c

Question 97

All records and registers pertained to blood bank should be maintained for :

A

10 years

B

15 years

C

5 years

D

None of the above

Question 98

All blood banks in India is regulated by :

A

Drug and Cosmetic Act

B

State Drug licensing act

C

Food and Drug administration act

D

Occupational Safety and health administration

Question 99

As part of occurrence reporting a sentinel event is that defined as :

A

Any process which did not affect the outcome

B

A complication that occurred to the donor

C

An occurrence not attributed to a person’s mistake

D

An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious injury

Question 100

Periodic Medical audit in blood banks is to be conducted by :

A

Biosafety assurance committee

B

Quality assurance committee

C

Hospital transfusion committee

D

BTS committee

115/2022 - Blood Bank Technician - Health Services